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March 2024

All Providers

Get easy access to information about our care management and utilization management programs

Action item

Bookmark the Care management and utilization management programs: Overview for providers PDF in your internet browser to make it faster and easier to access the most up-to-date information about these programs.

We publish the overview document to help you navigate our care management and utilization management programs. We recently updated this document and the documents linked within it to reflect changes that went into effect on Jan. 1, 2024. We’ll continue to make updates as information changes.

This easy-to-use, one-page document tells you what you need to know about these two categories of programs:

  • Care management and support services — Care management programs provide patient support by identifying patients with health risks and working with them to improve or maintain their health, and support services provide support to members through their health journeys.
  • Utilization management — These programs focus on ensuring that patients get the right care at the right time in the right location through the prior authorization process.

The programs vary based on member coverage and may be administered by Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan or Blue Care Network staff or by contracted vendors.

You can access the document using the links above or by clicking on the Care and utilization management programs: Overview for providers link at the bottom of each page of our ereferrals.bcbsm.com website.


HealthEquity to begin paying providers electronically, starting March 1

We’re working with HealthEquity®, to make it easier for you to receive your payments faster. Starting March 1, HealthEquity, will begin paying our health care providers using VPay, an electronic payment remittance system.

As a reminder, HealthEquity is an administrator of health savings accounts, or HSAs, flexible spending accounts, or FSAs, and health reimbursement arrangements, or HRAs, for Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network commercial members.

If you have patients with HealthEquity accounts through other health plans, you’re likely already familiar with the VPay system. If this is true, there’s nothing for you to do – your electronic payments will begin on March 1.

Note: If you’ve previously communicated with HealthEquity that you prefer to be reimbursed with paper checks, you will not begin receiving electronic payments.

Questions? Please call the VPay Support Center at 1-866-919-0537. For more information about the VPay system, go to healthequity.com**.

 

HealthEquity, Inc. is an independent company supporting Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network by providing health care spending account administration services. An independent, FDIC-insured bank holds the health savings account dollars.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network don't own or control this website.


2024 CPT first-quarter PLA code update

The American Medical Association has added 13 new 2024 PLA codes as part of its CPT update. The codes, effective dates and Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan’s coverage decisions are below.

Laboratory and Pathology/Proprietary Laboratory Analyses

Code*

Change

Coverage comments

Effective date

0354U

Deleted

 

March 31, 2024

0416U

Deleted

 

March 31, 2024

0439U

Added

Not covered

April 1, 2024

0440U

Added

Not covered

April 1, 2024

0441U

Added

Not covered

April 1, 2024

0442U

Added

Not covered

April 1, 2024

0443U

Added

Not covered

April 1, 2024

0444U

Added

Not covered

April 1, 2024

0445U

Added

Not covered

April 1, 2024

0446U

Added

Not covered

April 1, 2024

0447U

Added

Not covered

April 1, 2024

0448U

Added

Covered

April 1, 2024

0449U

Added

Not covered

April 1, 2024

 

None of the information included in this article is intended to be legal advice and, as such, it remains the provider’s responsibility to ensure that all coding and documentation are done in accordance with all applicable state and federal laws and regulations.


Have you subscribed to Provider Alerts Weekly?

Provider alerts offer you information you need to know between newsletters. Housed on the secure Provider Resources website, provider alerts are accessed through the payer space on our provider portal.

Last September, we launched the option to subscribe to a weekly email called Provider Alerts Weekly. In it, you’ll find a list of the previous week’s headlines, with links so you can view the details for the alerts that interest you.

Subscriptions continue to increase as more people discover the convenience of have a week’s worth of provider alerts just a click away from their inboxes on Wednesday mornings.

Go to the Subscribe to Provider Newsletters webpage to sign up for Provider Alerts Weekly emails.


MHSA network providers not classified as halfway houses need to enroll in another Blue Cross network

Effective May 1, 2024, Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan is redefining the Mental Health Substance Abuse network to include only halfway house providers.

Providers and facilities that are not classified as halfway houses, who only participate in the MHSA network, and want to remain Blue Cross providers, need to enroll in the PPO Trust or TRAD-PAR network.

To enroll in another Blue Cross network, use the enrollment forms on bcbsm.com/providers.


New on-demand training available

Action item

Visit our provider training site to find new and updated resources on topics that are important to your role.

Provider Experience continues to offer training resources for health care providers and staff. Our on-demand courses are designed to help you work more efficiently with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network.

We recently added the following learning opportunities:

  • Carelon Medical Benefits Management overview: This course gives an overview of the prior authorization program administered by Carelon Medical Benefits Management. Search “Carelon” to quickly locate this course.
  • Provider portal mini-courses: Learn about tips and tricks for using our provider portal through Availity® Essentials in this series of mini-courses. Each course takes just a few minutes to complete. We’ll add more topics over time based on provider feedback and interest. Search “portal” to quickly locate this series of courses.
  • Telehealth – Best practices for meaningful interactions (providers’ guide): This course is designed as a tool for providers as they navigate their way through the world of telehealth medicine. The lessons cover key aspects of telehealth visits, making meaningful connections despite the loss of physical presence and how to apply the basics of patient-centered communication on a digital platform. Search “telehealth providers” to quickly locate the course. This course offers CME credit through the Minnesota Medical Association.
  • Telehealth – Processes to maintain a great patient experience (office managers’ guide): This course is designed as a tool for office managers, leads and anyone within the office who may be designing office workflows as they navigate their way through the world of telehealth medicine. Search “telehealth office managers” to locate the course.

The goal of our provider training site is to enhance the training experience for health care providers and staff. Check out the dashboard regularly for announcements as we add more courses, including those with CME offerings.

To access the training site, follow these steps:

  1. Log in to the provider portal, availity.com.**
  2. Click on Payer Spaces on the menu bar and then click on the BCBSM and BCN logo.
  3. Under Applications, click on the Provider Training Site tile.
  4. Click on Submit on the Select an Organization page
  5. Existing users who used the same email address as their provider portal profile email will be directed to the training site. If you used a different email address, contact ProviderTraining@bcbsm.com to update your profile.

Note: If you’re a new training site user, complete the one-time registration by entering your role and creating a password. This allows you to access the training site outside of the provider portal if needed.

If you need assistance navigating the provider training site, email ProviderTraining@bcbsm.com.

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

Carelon Medical Benefits Management is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to manage prior authorizations for select services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network don't own or control this website.


Billing chart: Blue Cross highlights medical, benefit policy changes

You’ll find the latest information about procedure codes and Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan billing guidelines in the following chart.

This billing chart is organized numerically by procedure code. Newly approved procedures will appear under the New Payable Procedures heading. Procedures for which we have changed a billing guideline or added a new payable group will appear under Updates to Payable Procedures. Procedures for which we are clarifying our guidelines will appear under Policy Clarifications. New procedures that are not covered will appear under Experimental Procedures.

We'll publish information about new Blue Cross groups or changes to group benefits under the Group Benefit Changes heading.

For more detailed descriptions of the Blue Cross' policies for these procedures, check under the Commercial Policy tab in Benefit Explainer on Availity®. To access this online information:

    1. Log in to availity.com.
    2 .Click on Payer Spaces on the Availity menu bar.
    3. Click on the BCBSM and BCN logo.
    4. Click on Benefit Explainer on the Applications tab.
    5. Click on the Commercial Policy tab.
    6. Click on Topic.
    7. Under Topic Criteria, click on the circle for Unique Identifier and click the drop-down arrow next to Choose Identifier Type, then click on HCPCS Code.
    8. Enter the procedure code.
    9. Click on Finish.
    10. Click on Search.
Code* BCBSM changes to:
Basic Benefit and Medical Policy, Group
Variations Payment Policy, Guidelines
NEW PAYABLE PROCEDURES

0359U, 81313, 81539, 81551

Informational procedures:
84153, 84154, 86316, 0005U, 0113U, 0339U, 0359U

Experimental:
81229, 81599,** 0021U, 0228U, 0343U

**Not otherwise classified procedure

Basic benefit and medical policy

Biomarkers for the early detection of prostate cancer

For the purpose of early detection of prostate cancer, testing of genetic and protein biomarkers before an initial or repeat biopsy is considered established when criteria are met.

Procedure codes *0359U, *81313, *81539 and *81551 are being added as payable services, and inclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Payment policy:

Not payable in an office location. Modifiers 26 and TC aren’t applicable to these procedures.

Inclusions:

Note: It’s expected that the FDA or manufacturer’s testing guidelines will be followed.

  1. Genetic and protein biomarkers for early detection of prostate cancer are established before an initial biopsy for one of the following:
    • In individuals 45 to 75 years of age who are considered average risk, have a PSA level > 3 ng/mL or have a very suspicious digital rectal examination, or DRE, and have been evaluated for benign prostate disease.
    • In individuals 40 to 75 years of age who are Black or have germline mutations that increase the risk of prostate cancer, or who have a suspicious family history, and have all the following:
      • A PSA level > 3 ng/mL and/or
      • A very suspicious DRE
      • Been evaluated for benign prostate disease

Biomarkers that improve the specificity of cancer detection include percent-free PSA; Prostate Health Index, or PHI; SelectMDx®; 4Kscore®; ExoDx™ Prostate IntelliScore, or EPI; MyProstateScore, or MPS, and IsoPSA.

  1. Genetic and protein biomarkers for early detection of prostate cancer are established before a repeat biopsy:
    • In individuals who had an initial biopsy with results of one of the following:
      • Atypia, suspicious for cancer
      • High-grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia, or PIN
      • A negative prostate biopsy and clinical suspicion of cancer persists

Biomarkers that improve specificity in the post-biopsy setting include percent-free PSA, PHI, 4Kscore®, Progensa® PCA3, ConfirmMDx®, MPS, IsoPSA and EPI.

Exclusions:

Biomarkers aren’t covered if criteria above aren’t met. This is not an all-inclusive biomarker list.

  • Mitochondrial DNA mutation testing (e.g., Prostate Core Mitomic Test™)
  • PanGIA Prostate

Biomarker testing isn’t expected to be performed more frequently than every three to five years.

See the Prostate cancer early detection NCCN Guidelines® in the supplemental section of the medical policy for the list of biomarkers.

90678

Basic benefit and medical policy

Respiratory syncytial virus vaccine (Abrysvo™)

The respiratory syncytial virus vaccine (Abrysvo™), for intramuscular use, is established, effective May 31, 2023. It has been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
POLICY CLARIFICATIONS

22867, 22868, 22869, 22870

Basic benefit and medical policy

Interspinous/interlaminar distraction devices (spacers)

Interspinous/interlaminar distraction devices are considered established as a treatment of neurogenic intermittent claudication or lumbar spinal stenosis resulting in leg/buttock/groin pain, with or without back pain, or when used as a stabilization device with or without decompressive surgery. They may be considered useful therapeutic options for patients meeting specified patient selection criteria.

Inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Payment policy:

Spinal procedures may require prior authorization through TurningPoint. Please reference member benefits prior to service.

Inclusions:
 
Superion® (Vertiflex) (must meet all criteria):

  • Age greater than 40 years
  • Vertiflex should be used only when the individual isn’t a candidate for a decompression procedure due to significant comorbid conditions
  • Vertiflex isn’t intended for use in conjunction with laminectomy for treatment of spinal stenosis
  • Degenerative lumbar stenosis when all the following criteria are met:
    • Neurogenic claudication interferes with daily activities and is relieved by lumbar flexion
    • Able to sit for 50 minutes and walk for at least 50 feet
    • Moderate stenosis** is confirmed by imaging at 1-2 adjacent levels from L1-L5 and correlates with symptoms
    • Imaging confirms no more than 10 degrees of degenerative scoliosis and no more than grade 1 (8 mm) of degenerative spondylolisthesis
    • Failure of at least six months of non-operative treatment including all of the following (unless contraindicated due to severity of pain or progressive neurological deficit)
      • NSAIDs
      • Physical therapy should include a trial of six weeks of physical therapy or a documented and supervised home therapy program
      • Trial of epidural steroid injection or injections 

**Moderate stenosis is defined as a 25% to 50% reduction in the central or nerve root canal (spinal or subarticular/neuroforaminal) compared to the adjacent levels, including one of the following:

  • Thecal sac or cauda equina compression
  • Nerve root impingement (displacement or compression caused by either osseous or non-osseous structures)
  • Hypertrophic facets with canal encroachment

Coflex® (must meet all criteria):

  • Skeletally mature patients with at least moderate impairment (determined by shared decision making between the patient and treating physician) in function experiencing leg/buttock/groin pain with or without back pain
  • Six months of non-operative treatment including non-steroidal therapy, comprehensive physical therapy to surgery
  • Comprehensive therapy should include a trial of six-week physical therapy or a documented and supervised home therapy program (not required if symptoms are severe causing forced bed rest, functionally limiting motor weakness or if there is evidence of progressive neurological deficit)
  • Trial of epidural injection
  • DEXA scan performed prior to surgical procedure
  • A laminectomy at the time of Coflex device insertion is required

Exclusions:

Superion® (Vertiflex):

  • Age less than 40 years
  • An allergy to titanium or titanium alloy
  • Mainly axial back pain that isn’t related to activity
  • Lumbar flexion doesn’t relieve symptoms
  • Back or leg pain of unknown etiology
  • Spinal anatomy or disease that would prevent implantation of the device or cause the device to be unstable in situ, such as:
    • Instability of the lumbar spine, e.g., isthmic spondylolisthesis or degenerative spondylolisthesis greater than grade 1 (greater than 25%, or 8mm)
    • An ankylosed segment at the affected level
    • Acute fracture of the spinous process, pars interarticularis, or laminae (unilateral or bilateral)
    • Scoliosis (Cobb angle >10 degrees)
  • Cauda equina syndrome, defined as neural compression causing neurogenic bladder or bowel dysfunction.
  • Diagnosis of severe osteoporosis, defined as bone mineral density (from DEXA [dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry] scan or equivalent method) in the spine or hip that is more than 2.5 S.D. below the mean of adult normal
  • Active systemic infection, or infection localized to the site of implantation
  • Prior fusion or decompression/laminectomy procedure sat the index level
  • Morbid obesity defined as a BMI greater than 40

Coflex®:

  • Prior fusion or decompressive laminectomy at any index lumbar level
  • Radiographically compromised vertebral bodies at any lumbar level caused by current or past trauma or tumor (e.g., compression fracture)
  • Severe facet hypertrophy that requires extensive bone removal that would cause instability
  • Grade II or greater spondylolisthesis
  • Isthmic spondylolisthesis or spondylolysis (pars fracture)
  • Degenerative lumbar scoliosis (Cobb angle greater than 25°)
  • Osteoporosis
  • Back or leg pain of unknown etiology
  • Axial back pain only, with no leg, buttock, or groin pain
  • Morbid obesity defined as a BMI > 40
  • Active or chronic infection – systemic or local
  • Known allergy to titanium alloys or magnetic resonance contrast agents
  • Cauda equina syndrome defined as neural compression causing neurogenic bowel or bladder dysfunction

TurningPoint Healthcare Solutions LLC is an independent company that manages authorizations for musculoskeletal surgical and related procedures for Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network.

32701, 77300, 77520, 77522, 77523, 77525

Basic benefit and medical policy

Proton beam therapy

Charged-particle irradiation with proton or helium ion beams may be considered established for the curative treatment for specific patient populations. It’s a useful therapeutic option when indicated.

Other applications of charged-particle irradiation with proton beams are considered experimental.

Inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Payment policy:
 
Proton beam therapy requires prior authorization for most groups. Please reference member benefits before service.

Inclusions:
  
Charged-particle irradiation with proton or helium ion beams is established for the curative treatment of any of the following conditions when metastatic disease is not present:

  • For treatment of small, localized tumors associated with genetic syndromes in which minimizing the total volume of radiated tissue is minimized, for example, in individuals with cancer syndromes such as Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1), Li-Fraumeni, Ataxia Telangiectasia (with deleterious ATM mutations), Hereditary Retinoblastoma, Lynch syndrome, or hereditary breast or ovarian cancer (with BRCA1/2 mutations)
  • In the treatment of intracranial arteriovenous malformation not amenable to surgical excision or other conventional forms of treatment or adjacent to critical structures such as the optic nerve, brain stem or spinal cord
  • Re-irradiation with curative intent where cumulative critical structure dose will exceed tolerance dose
  • Primary malignant or benign bone tumors
  • Primary ocular tumors including intraocular/uveal melanomas
  • Base of skull primary tumors (e.g., Chordomas, Chondrosarcomas)
  • Primary CNS tumors excluding IDH wild-type glioblastoma multiforme
  • Primary spine or spinal cord tumors where organs at risk tolerance will be exceeded with photon treatments
  • Nonmetastatic primary tumors requiring craniospinal irradiation (e,g, medulloblastoma)
  • Nasopharynx, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses or other accessory sinuses cancer
  • Unresected T3, T4, or node positive head and neck cancers
  • Esophageal cancer
  • Thymoma or thymic carcinoma
  • Mediastinal lymphomas
  • Thoracic sarcomas
  • Primary malignant pleural mesothelioma
  • Hepatocellular cancer or intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma
  • Retroperitoneal sarcomas
  • Individuals with a single kidney or transplanted pelvic kidney with treatment of an adjacent target volume
  • Benign or malignant tumors or hematologic malignancies in children aged 21 years and younger treated with curative intent
  • In the curative treatment of nonmetastatic primary non-small cell lung cancer

Note: Use of proton beam therapy may require prior authorization to verify that Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan or Blue Care Network criteria are met and, where appropriate, to explore the appropriateness of using alternative therapeutic modalities such as IMRT, 3-dimensional conformal radiation therapy.

Exclusions:

  • Head and neck cancers not included in Group 1 (e.g., T1/T2 tumors, node negative tumors, postoperative tumors with negative margins, periorbital tumors)
  • Cutaneous tumors with cranial nerve invasion to the base of skull, cavernous sinus or brainstem
  • Head and neck cancers requiring ipsilateral radiation treatment (e.g., oral cavity, salivary gland)
  • Mucosal melanoma
  • Glioblastoma, IDH wild-type
  • Breast cancer, including, but not limited to, when a photon-based plan can’t meet tolerances for organs at risk
  • Pancreatic cancer
  • Gastric cancer
  • Extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma
  • Kidney cancer
  • Adrenal cancers
  • Liver metastases being treated with curative intent (i.e., oligometastases) in which a photon-based plan can’t meet tolerances for organs at risk
  • Prostate cancer, including, but not limited to, when a photon-based plan can’t meet tolerances for organs at risk
  • Colon cancer
  • Rectal cancer
  • Anal cancer
  • Bladder cancer
  • Cervical cancer
  • Endometrial cancer
  • Ovarian cancer
  • Hodgkin lymphoma
  • Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
  • Skin cancer
  • Palliative treatment
  • Metastatic tumors
  • Leptomeningeal disease
  • Multiple myeloma
  • Pelvic or proximal thigh where use of protons results in significant dose reduction to genitalia

33274, 33275, 0795T, 0796T, 0797T, 0798T, 0799T, 0800T, 0801T, 0802T, 0803T, 0804T

Basic benefit and medical policy

Leadless cardiac pacemakers

The policy has been updated to cover procedure codes *0795T, *0796T, *0797T, *0798T, *0799T, *0800T, *0801T, *0802T, *0803T and *0804T when criteria are met, effective Nov. 1, 2023.

The safety and effectiveness of leadless cardiac pacemakers have been established. It may be considered a useful therapeutic option when indicated.

Inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Nov. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

For axillary transvenous pacemakers, there is a concern that leads or the generator could be affected by the recoil of using a firearm (e.g., rifles or shotguns). Thus leadless cardiac pacemakers can provide an alternative for patients who suffer lead fracture or malfunction from mechanical stress and may be considered when axillary venous access is present only on a side of the body that would not allow use of equipment producing such mechanical stress (e.g., a firearm).

The Micra™ VR or Aveir™ single-chamber transcatheter pacing system may be considered established in individuals when both conditions below are met:

  1. The individual has high-grade atrioventricular, or AV, blocka in the presence of atrial fibrillation or has significant bradycardia and one of the following:
    • Normal sinus rhythm with rare episodes of 2° or 3° AV block or sinus arresta
    • Chronic atrial fibrillation
    • Severe physical disabilityb
  2. The individual has a significant contraindication precluding placement of conventional single-chamber ventricular pacemaker leads such as any of the following:
    • History of an endovascular or cardiovascular implantable electronic device, or CIED, infection or who are at high risk for infectionc.
    • Limited access for transvenous pacing given venous anomaly, occlusion of axillary veins or planned use of such veins for a semi-permanent catheter or current or planned use of an arteriovenous, or AV, fistula for hemodialysis.
    • Presence of a bioprosthetic tricuspid valve.

The Micra™ AV single-chamber transcatheter pacing system may be considered established in individuals when both conditions below are met:

  1. The individual has high-grade AV blocka in the presence of atrial fibrillation or has significant bradycardia and one of the following:
    • Normal sinus rhythm with rare episodes of 2° or 3° AV block or sinus arresta
    • Chronic atrial fibrillation
    • Severe physical disabilityb
    • There is an indication for VDD pacing and the individual may benefit from maintenance of AV synchronous ventricular pacing.
  2. The individual has a significant contraindication precluding placement of conventional single-chamber ventricular pacemaker leads such as any of the following:
    • History of an endovascular or cardiovascular implantable electronic device, or CIED, infection or who are at high risk for infectionc.
    • Limited access for transvenous pacing given venous anomaly, occlusion of axillary veins or planned use of such veins for a semi-permanent catheter or current or planned use of an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis.
    • Presence of a bioprosthetic tricuspid valve.

The Aveir™ DR Dual Chamber leadless pacemaker system may be considered established in individuals  when both criteria are met:

  1. The individual exhibits any of the following:
    • Sick sinus syndrome
    • Chronic, symptomatic second- and third-degree AV block
    • Recurrent Adams-Stokes syndrome
    • Symptomatic bilateral bundle-branch block when tachyarrhythmia and other causes have been ruled out.
  2. The individual has significant contraindication precluding placement of conventional single-chamber ventricular pacemaker leads such as any of the following:
    • History of an endovascular or cardiovascular implantable electronic device (CIED) infection or who are at high risk for infectionc.
    • Limited access for transvenous pacing given venous anomaly, occlusion of axillary veins or planned use of such veins for a semi-permanent catheter or current or planned use of an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis.
    • Presence of a bioprosthetic tricuspid valve.

aAtrioventricular block occurs when there is interference of the electrical signals from the atrium to the ventricle. AV block is categorized based on severity. First-degree AV block occurs when signals are transferred more slowly than normal. Second-degree AV block is divided into Type I and Type II. Type I is also called Mobitz Type I or Wenckebach’s AV block. There is gradually slower activity which may produce skipped heartbeats. Second-degree Type II is also called Mobitz Type II where more signals fail to reach the ventricles, resulting in a slower and more abnormal heart rhythm. Second-degree AV block can be paroxysmal (not persistent) or permanent. Additionally, high-degree AV block is a form of second-degree AV block in which the conduction ratio is high representing multiple atrial contractions that aren’t conducting to the ventricle; however, there is still some AV conduction and as such is not a third-degree AV block. Third-degree AV block is a complete block of the electrical signals; while the ventricles contract on their own, the consequences are reduced and irregular heart rate and reduced cardiac output. Individuals with rare episodes of AV block or sinus arrest generally don’t require pacing intervention, although symptomatic individuals might have significant need for pacing. The Micra™ VR and Aveir™ devices are indicated when there is infrequent AV block. The Micra™ AV device is indicated with infrequent or chronic AV block. These definitions come from the intended use definitions of the devices and clinical input. There is no strict definition of the frequency of episodes or the degree of symptoms.

bClinical input suggests that severe physical disability encompasses a variety of comorbidities where conventional pacemaker placement would confer undue short- or long-term risk or further compromise a limited ability to meet activities of daily living, including compliance with postoperative care instructions.

cThe 2019 European Heart Rhythm Association, or EHRA, international consensus paper on the prevention, diagnosis and treatment of cardiac implantable electronic device, or CIED, infections has been endorsed by the Heart Rhythm Society, or HRS, and lists the following non-modifiable patient-related risk factors for CIED infections:

  • End-stage renal disease
  • Corticosteroid use
  • Renal failure
  • History of device infection
  • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  • Heart failure (New York Heart Association  Class ≥II)
  • Malignancy
  • Diabetes mellitus

Exclusions:

Micr™ Leadless Pacemakers

  • As per the FDA label, the Micra™ pacemaker is contraindicated for patients who have the following types of devices implanted:
    • An implanted device that would interfere with the implant of the Micra device in the judgment of the implanting physician.
    • An implanted inferior vena cava filter
    • A mechanical tricuspid valve
    • An implanted cardiac device providing active cardiac therapy that may interfere with the sensing performance of the Micra device.
  • As per the FDA label, the Micra™ pacemaker is also contraindicated for patients who have the following conditions:
    • Femoral venous anatomy unable to accommodate a 7.8 mm (23 French) introducer sheath or implant on the right side of the heart (for example, due to obstructions or severe tortuosity)
    • Morbid obesity that prevents the implanted device to obtain telemetry communication within <12.5 cm (4.9 in)
    • Known intolerance to titanium, titanium nitride, parylene C, primer for parylene C, polyether ether ketone, siloxane, nitinol, platinum, iridium, liquid silicone rubber, silicone medical adhesive and heparin or sensitivity to contrast medical dye that can’t be adequately premedicated
  • As per the FDA label, the Micra™ pacemaker should not be used in patients for whom a single dose of 1.0 mg dexamethasone acetate can’t be tolerated because the device contains a molded and cured mixture of dexamethasone acetate with the target dosage of 272 μg dexamethasone acetate. It is intended to deliver the steroid to reduce inflammation and fibrosis.
  • The Micra™ transcatheter pacing system is considered experimental in all other situations in which the above criteria are not met.

Aveir Leadless Pacemakers

The Aveir Leadless Pacemaker should not be used in patients with:

  • An implanted cardioverter/defibrillator that detects life-threatening rapid heartbeats and sends an electrical shock to correct the rhythm
  • An implanted filter to catch blood clots in one of the primary veins that carries blood to the heart (vena cava) or a mechanical valve between the heart’s right lower chamber (ventricle) and the right upper chamber (atrium), called the tricuspid valve
  • A known history of allergies to any of the parts or components of this device

Some features of the Aveir Leadless Pacemaker should not be used under certain conditions.

  • Single-chamber ventricular demand pacing should not be used for most patients who have shown worsening symptoms after the pacemaker is implanted (pacemaker syndrome), a heart condition known as retrograde (ventriculo-atrial) conduction, or who experience a drop blood pressure in the arteries when pacing starts.
  • Rate-responsive pacing should not be used for patients who aren’t able to tolerate high sensor-driven rates.

The Aveir™ single or dual chamber transcatheter pacing systems are considered experimental in all other situation in which the above criteria aren’t met.

33285, 33286, 93228, 93229, 93241,
93242, 93243, 93244, 93245, 93246,
93247, 93248, 93268, 93270, 93271,
93272  

Experimental:
93799,** 0650T

**Not otherwise classified procedure

Basic benefit and medical policy

Ambulatory cardiac monitors

The safety and efficacy of ambulatory cardiac monitors have been established. They may be considered a useful diagnostic option when specified criteria are met.

Inclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Inclusions:
 
Patient-activated or auto-activated external ambulatory event monitors, or AEMs, or continuous ambulatory monitors that record and store information for periods longer than 48 hours up to 21 days (e.g., Zio Patch®) used as a diagnostic alternative to Holter monitoring when one of the following are met:

  • Symptoms are suggestive of cardiac arrhythmias (i.e., palpitations, dizziness, presyncope or syncope).
  • Atrial fibrillation has been treated with catheter ablation and the discontinuation of systemic anticoagulation is being considered.
  • Diagnosis of cryptogenic stroke.

Implantable ambulatory event monitors (patient-activated or auto-activated) when one of the following have been met:

  • Recurrent symptoms are so infrequent that a prior trial using an external ambulatory event monitor (e.g., Holter or other monitor) has been unsuccessful.
  • Long-term monitoring for atrial fibrillation is required.

Mobile Cardiac Outpatient Telemetry, or MCOT, when both of the following are met:

  • One of the following conditions are present:
    • Symptoms suggestive of cardiac arrhythmias that occur less than once every 48 hours.
    • Unconfirmed suspicion of paroxysmal atrial fib following cryptogenic stroke when the monitoring is intended to guide medical management with anticoagulants.
  • A non-diagnostic external ambulatory cardiac event monitoring trial of not less than 14 continuous days has been completed

Exclusions:
           
Other uses of ambulatory event monitors, including, but not limited to:

  • Monitoring asymptomatic individuals with risk factors for arrhythmia
  • Detection of myocardial ischemia by detecting ST segment changes (intracardiac ischemia monitoring systems)
  • Monitoring effectiveness of antiarrhythmic medications in the absence of other inclusionary criteria

33361, 33362, 33363, 33364, 33365,
33366, 33367, 33368, 33369    

Experimental:
33370, 33999**

**Not otherwise classified procedure

Basic benefit and medical policy

Transcatheter aortic valve implantation

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement performed with an FDA-approved transcatheter heart valve system, when performed via an approach consistent with the device’s FDA-approved labeling, may be indicated for individuals with aortic stenosis.

The use of cerebral embolic protection device or devices (e.g., Sentinel) as an adjunct therapy to an FDA-approved transcatheter heart valve system is considered experimental. It hasn’t been scientifically proven to improve net health outcomes.

Exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Inclusions:

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement with a device approved by the FDA and performed via an approach consistent with the device’s FDA-approved labeling is established for individuals with aortic stenosis when all the following conditions are present:

  • One of the following:
    • Severe aortic stenosis with a calcified aortic annulus
    • Failure (stenosed, insufficient or combined) of a surgical bioprosthetic aortic valve
  • New York Heart Association, or NYHA, heart failure class II, III or IV symptoms
  • Left ventricular ejection fraction greater than 20%
  • One of the following:
    • Individual isn’t an operable candidate for open surgery, as judged by at least two cardiovascular specialists including a cardiac surgeon.
    • Individual is an operable candidate but is at high risk** for open surgery.
    • Individual is at intermediate or greater surgical risk for open aortic valve replacement. (Only when used in concordance with FDA regulations for Sapien XT Transcatheter Heart Valve, see below.)
    • Individual is at low surgical risk** for open aortic valve replacement. (Only when used in concordance with FDA regulations for Sapien 3, Sapien 3 Ultra, CoreValve Evolut R or CoreValve Evolut PRO.)

Edwards SAPIEN XT Transcatheter Heart Valve:

  • Severe aortic stenosis with a calcified aortic annulus and one or more of the following:
    • An aortic valve area of ≤ 1.0 cm² or aortic valve area index ≤ 0.6 cm2/m2
    • A mean aortic valve gradient ≥ 40 mmHg
    • A peak aortic-jet velocity ≥ 4.0 m/sec
    • Native anatomy appropriate for the 23-, 26-, or 29-mm valve system (between 18 and 28 mm)
  • NYHA heart failure Class II, III or IV symptoms
  • Individual is not a candidate for open surgery, as judged by a heart team, including a cardiac surgeon, or to be at high or greater risk** for open surgical therapy.
  • Individual is at intermediate surgical risk** for open aortic valve replacement.

Edwards SAPIEN and Edwards SAPIEN 3 Ultra:

Individual with severe aortic valve stenosis who is at low risk** for death or major complications associated with open-heart surgery.

Medtronic CoreValve™ (Evolut) system:

  • Severe aortic stenosis with a calcified aortic annulus and one or more of the following:
    • An aortic valve area of ≤ 1.0 cm² OR aortic valve area index ≤ 0.6 cm2/m2
    • A mean aortic valve gradient ≥ 40 mmHg
    • A peak aortic-jet velocity ≥ 4.0 m/sec
    • Native aortic annulus diameters between 23 and 31 mm
  • NYHA heart failure Class II, III or IV symptoms
  • Individual with severe aortic valve stenosis who is at low risk or higher** for death or major complications associated with open-heart surgery.

Portico™ Transcatheter Aortic Valve Implantation System:

  • Aortic stenosis in individuals with symptomatic heart disease due to severe native calcific aortic stenosis who are judged by a heart team, including a cardiac surgeon, to be at high** or greater risk for open surgical therapy (i.e., predicted risk of surgical mortality ≥ 8% at 30 days, based on the Society of Thoracic Surgeons risk score and other clinical comorbidities unmeasured by the STS risk calculator).

**Definition of predictive risk factor based on the Society of Thoracic Surgeons, or STS, predicted risk score for major complications and other clinical comorbidities unmeasured by the STS risk calculator for open surgery.

  • Low risk – Predicted operative risk score of less than 3% or 4%
  • Intermediate risk – Predicted operative risk score of 3% to 7%
  • High risk – Predicted operative risk score of 8% or higher; or judged by a heart team, which includes an experienced cardiac surgeon and a cardiologist, to have an expected mortality risk of ≥ 15% within 30 days.

Exclusions:

  • Use of cerebral embolic protection device (e.g., Sentinel) during transcatheter aortic valve replacement procedures.
  • Transcatheter aortic valve replacement is considered experimental/investigational for all other indications, including, but not limited to:
    • The individual is an appropriate candidate for the standard, open surgical approach but has refused.
    • Hypersensitivity or contraindication to an anticoagulation/antiplatelet regimen
    • Presence of active bacterial endocarditis or other active infections
    • Presence of unicuspid or bicuspid aortic valveo
    • Non-FDA approved systems or approaches including JenaValve systems and Transcaval approach

48550, 48551, 48552, 48554, S2065

Basic benefit and medical policy

Pancreas transplant

The safety and effectiveness of pancreas transplant have been established. It may be considered a useful therapeutic option for patients meeting selection criteria.

The inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Inclusions:

Indications for a pancreas transplant include but are not limited to:

  • A combined pancreas-kidney transplant, or SPK, for insulin-dependent diabetic individuals with uremia.
  • Pancreas transplant after a prior kidney transplant, or PAK, for individuals with insulin-dependent diabetes.
  • Pancreas transplant alone, or PTA, may be for individuals with severely disabling and potentially life-threatening complications due to hypoglycemia unawareness and labile insulin dependent diabetes that persists in spite of optimal medical management.
  • Pancreas retransplant after a failed primary pancreas transplant in individuals who meet criteria for pancreas transplantation.

The consideration for risk-reducing procedure (e.g., CABG) performed at the same time as the organ transplant is a consideration based on the medical consultation review.

Exclusions:

  • Poor cardiac function: Ejection fraction should be greater than 45% with no overt symptoms of congestive heart failure.
  • Poor pulmonary function: Pulmonary function tests must be greater than or equal to 50% of predicted value.
  • Poor renal function: Renal creatinine clearance should be greater than 40 ml/min or creatinine must be less than or equal to 2mg/dl (unless an SPK is being done).
  • Poor liver function: There should be no history of severe chronic liver disease.
  • Patients with ongoing alcohol or drug abuse. (Evidence for abstinence may vary among   programs, but generally, a minimum of three months is required or enrollment in a sanctioned program.)

Potential contraindications for transplant and retransplant:

Note: Final patient eligibility for transplant is subject to the judgment and discretion of the requesting transplant center.

  • Potential contraindications represent situations where proceeding with transplant isn’t advisable in the context of limited organ availability. Contraindications may evolve over time as transplant experience grows in the medical community. Clinical documentation supplied to the health plan should demonstrate that attending staff at the transplant center have considered all contraindications as part of their overall evaluation of potential organ transplant recipients and have decided to proceed.
  • Known current malignancy or history of recent malignancy
  • Untreated systemic infection making immunosuppression unsafe, including chronic infection
  • Other irreversible end-stage disease not attributed to kidney disease
  • Systemic disease that could be exacerbated by immunosuppression
  • Psychosocial conditions or chemical dependency affecting ability to adhere to therapy as defined by the transplant program

Pancreas specific guidelines:
 
Candidates for pancreas transplant alone should additionally meet one of the following severity of illness criteria:

  • Documentation of severe hypoglycemia unawareness as evidenced by chart notes or emergency department visits.
  • Documentation of potentially life-threatening labile diabetes as evidenced by chart notes, emergency department visits or hospitalization for diabetic ketoacidosis.

In addition, the vast majority of pancreas transplant patients will have Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Those transplant candidates with Type 2 diabetes mellitus, in addition to being insulin-dependent, should also not be obese (body mass index should be 32 kg/m2 or less).  According to International Pancreas Transplant Registry data, in 2018, 14.8% of pancreas transplant recipients had Type 2 diabetes.  

Multiple transplants:

Although there are no standard guidelines regarding multiple pancreas transplants, the following information may aid in case review:

  • If there is early graft loss resulting from technical factors (e.g., venous thrombosis), a retransplant may generally be performed without substantial additional risk.
  • Long-term graft losses may result from chronic rejection, which is associated with increased risk of infection following long-term immunosuppression, and sensitization, which increases the difficulty of finding a negative cross-match. Some transplant centers may wait to allow reconstitution of the immune system before initiating retransplant with an augmented immunosuppression protocol.

All transplants must be prior authorized through the Human Organ Transplant Program.

55873, 55880, 55899

Experimental
0655T, 0739T

Basic benefit and medical policy

Focal treatments for prostate cancer

Cryoablation of the prostate is considered established as treatment of clinically localized (organ-confined) prostate cancer when criteria are met.

High-intensity focused ultrasound, or HIFU, ablation of the prostate is considered established when criteria are met.

Focal laser ablation, radiofrequency ablation, photodynamic therapy and magnetic nanoparticles for the initial or salvage treatment of localized prostate cancer are considered experimental as they haven’t been shown to improve patient clinical outcomes.

The medical policy statement, and inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Inclusionary and exclusionary guidelines:

Inclusions:

Cryoablation may be considered established for the initial treatment of clinically localized (organ-confined) prostate cancer.

Cryoablation or high-intensity focused ultrasound, known as HIFU, may be considered established for local treatment of recurrent prostate cancer when all the following are met:

  1. Primary treatment of prostate cancer was radiation therapy
  2. All the following:
    • Original clinical stage T1-T2, NX or N0
    • Life expectancy >10 y
    • PSA now <10 ng/mL
  3. Transrectal ultrasound guided biopsy is positive
  4. Studies are negative for distant metastases

Exclusions:

  • Localized treatment of recurrent prostate cancer with cryoablation or HIFU that doesn’t meet criteria.
  • HIFU for the initial treatment of clinically localized prostate cancer.

Focal laser ablation, radiofrequency ablation, photodynamic therapy or magnetic nanoparticles for the initial or salvage treatment of localized prostate cancer are considered experimental.

70544, 70545, 70546, 70547, 70548, 70549, 71555, 72198, 73725, 74185, 72159, 73225

Basic benefit and medical policy

Magnetic resonance angiography and venography

The safety and effectiveness of magnetic resonance angiography, or MRA, and magnetic resonance venography, or MRV, specified conditions of the head, chest, abdomen, pelvis, spinal canal, upper and lower extremities, and allergy have been established. They may be considered useful diagnostic options in patients with documented allergy to iodinated contrast material and in patients who have accelerating hypertension or accelerating renal insufficiency.

Inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Payment policy:

Services may be subject to preauthorization through the PPO Radiology Management Program, if applicable.

Inclusionary and exclusionary guidelines:

MRA and MRV inclusions:

MRA or MRV for head, neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis or extremities:

  • In the diagnosis and management of congenital or developmental vascular anomalies, not otherwise specified in one of the condition-based indications within these inclusionary guidelines.
  • For the diagnosis and management of traumatic vascular injuries or vasculitis.
  • Vascular anatomic delineation before surgical and interventional procedures, not otherwise specified in one of the condition-based indications within these inclusionary guidelines. Except for stenting or angioplasty of the dural venous sinus, which is excluded.
  • MRA is used for vascular evaluation before transcatheter aortic valve implantation or replacement. MRA of the neck requires duplex arterial ultrasound first.
  • Evaluation for suspected vascular complications following a procedure.

Head and neck:

MRA or MRV for the diagnosis and management of:

  • Stenosis or occlusion of vertebral or basilar arteries
    1. Diagnosis of suspected stenosis or occlusion:
      • Evaluation of syncope following exclusion of valvular heart disease and rhythm disturbance as the etiology
      • Subclavian steal syndrome
    2. Management of known stenosis or occlusion with worsening neurologic symptoms or signs attributable to the posterior circulation
  • Extracranial (carotid or vertebral) aneurysms
  • Arteriovenous malformation, or AVM, or fistula, or AVF
  • Dissection-intracranial or extracranial
  • Fibromuscular dysplasia
  • For the diagnosis and management of intracranial hemorrhage in all pediatric patients and in adults with either intracerebral hemorrhage with clinical or imaging features atypical for hypertensive hemorrhage or subarachnoid hemorrhage suggested by lumbar puncture or by imaging
  • For the diagnosis and management of extracranial venous thrombosis or compression following nondiagnostic venous ultrasound 
  • Intracranial venous thrombosis or compression (includes dural venous sinus thrombosis, venous sinus thrombosis and cerebral vein thrombosis) for any of the following:
    1. Exclusion of venous sinus thrombosis in the initial evaluation of idiopathic intracranial hypertension, or IIH, also known as pseudotumor cerebri
    2. Patients with risk factors for venous thrombosis, elevated D-dimer, or following suspicious or nondiagnostic CT or MRI, associated with any of the following signs or symptoms:
      • Unexplained headache
      • Seizure
      • Focal neurologic abnormality
      • Altered mental status
    3. History of intracranial venous sinus thrombosis, with current signs or symptoms of recurrent thrombosis
    4. Follow-up of known venous sinus thrombosis
    5. To exclude venous compression by an adjacent intracranial mass

MRA or MRV for the evaluation of a suspected vascular lesion in any of the following:

  • Horner’s syndrome
  • Pulsatile tinnitus
  • Trigeminal neuralgia

MRA or MRV for the following:

  • Intracranial stenosis or occlusion
    1. Diagnosis of suspected intracranial stenosis
      • People with predisposing congenital or genetic disease
      • To exclude a tandem stenosis or occlusion before carotid revascularization
      • Before cranial stenting
    2. Management of know intracranial stenosis with new or progressive symptoms
    3. Surveillance in patients with established Moyamoya disease who are being considered for revascularization

MRA or MRV for screening for intracranial aneurysm may be used for screening in any of the following high-risk groups:

  • Two or more first-degree relatives with intracranial aneurysm or subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • Heritable condition that is associated with intracranial aneurysm (examples include autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type IV)
  • Known fibromuscular dysplasia

MRA or MRV may be used for the diagnosis of clinically suspected intracranial aneurysm when:

  • CT or MRI findings suspicious for aneurysm
  • Neurologic signs or symptoms (including headache) suggestive of intracranial aneurysm with any of the following:
    1. At least one first-degree relative with intracranial aneurysm or subarachnoid hemorrhage
    2. Presence of a heritable condition associated with intracranial aneurysm (such as autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type IV)
    3. Known fibromuscular dysplasia
  • Cranial nerve deficits
  • Focal nerve deficits unexplained by CT or MRI
  • Headache with any of the following features:
    1. Sudden onset of the worst headache of life (“thunderclap”)
    2. Brought on by and occurring in association with exertion or Valsalva
    3. Persistent headache that remains undifferentiated or unexplained by MRI in any of the following scenarios:
      1. Positional or orthostatic headache
      2. New onset of headache over age 50
      3. Change in headache pattern
      4. Abnormal neurological exam
      5. Unexplained and unexpected increase in frequency or severity of headaches
      6. Comorbid conditions that increase the likelihood of an intracranial lesion, including malignancy, immunosuppression, sarcoidosis, neurocutaneous disorders (phakomatoses) or pregnancy
      7. Initial evaluation of trigeminal autonomic cephalgia, or TAC, including cluster, paroxysmal hemicrania or hemicrania continua, and short-lasting unilateral neuralgiform headache

Management of known intracranial aneurysm:

  • Evaluation for aneurysm progression or recurrence based on new or worsening neurologic symptoms
  • Preoperative evaluation
  • Initial postoperative evaluation

Surveillance: Initial evaluation at six to 12 months following diagnosis, then annually

Evaluation of extracranial carotid artery stenosis or occlusion in patients who are candidates for carotid revascularization (carotid endarterectomy or carotid artery stenting) when either duplex arterial ultrasound can’t be performed, is nondiagnostic or when duplex arterial ultrasound shows moderate to severe stenosis or occlusion with any of the following:

  • Screening
    1. Starting five years post-neck irradiation and every three years thereafter
    2. Evaluation before cardiac surgery when needed to determine surgical strategy
  • Diagnosis of suspected carotid stenosis
    1. Hollenhorst plaques (cholesterol emboli) or retinal neovascularity on retinal examination
  • Management of known carotid stenosis
    1. Worsening neurologic symptoms or signs attributable to the anterior circulation
    2. Initial baseline evaluation, and one additional evaluation during the first year following carotid revascularization
  • Surveillance of established carotid disease
    1. Stenosis or occlusion in asymptomatic people with no prior revascularization
      1. Moderate (50% to 69%) stenosis: Every 12 months
      2. Severe (70% or greater) stenosis: Every six months
    2. Post-revascularization after the first year: Every 12 months

Intracranial or extracranial evaluation of acute stroke or transient ischemic attack, or TIA

  • Intracranial evaluation for any of the following:
    1. Acute (seven days or less) stroke/TIA in any of the following scenarios:
      1. Acute stroke in an interventional candidate
      2. Evidence of acute ischemia or infarct on brain imaging
      3. Evaluation following acute TIA
    2. Subacute (within 30 days) stroke/TIA in either of the following scenarios:
      1. Signs or symptoms attributable to the anterior circulation, when the presence of intracranial stenosis will lead to use of dual antiplatelet therapy
      2. Signs or symptoms other than syncope attributable to the posterior circulation
  • Extracranial evaluation for any of the following:
    1. Acute (seven days or less) stroke/TIA in any of the following scenarios:
      1. Acute stroke in an interventional candidate
      2. Evidence of acute ischemia or infarct on brain imaging
      3. Evaluation following acute TIA
    2. Subacute (within 30 days) stroke/TIA in either of the following scenarios:
      1. Signs or symptoms attributable to the anterior (carotid) circulation, in patients who are candidates for carotid revascularization
      2. Signs or symptoms other than syncope attributable to the posterior circulation
    3. Chronic (30 days or more) stroke/TIA when no carotid evaluation since the stroke/TIA event in either of the following scenarios:
      1. Signs or symptoms attributable to the anterior (carotid) circulation, in patients who are candidates for carotid revascularization when duplex arterial ultrasound cannot be performed is or nondiagnostic
      2. Signs or symptoms other than syncope attributable to the posterior circulation

MRA and contrast angiography, or CA, aren’t expected to be performed on the same patient for the diagnostic purpose prior to the application of anticipated therapy.

Spinal canal:

MRA or MRV is useful in the following circumstances:

  1. Preoperative or postoperative imaging
  2. Follow up of prior imaging findings suggestive of a vascular lesion

Peripheral arteries of lower extremities:

  • MRA or MRV for the diagnosis and management of venous thrombosis or occlusion when venous ultrasound can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic.
  • Diagnosis, management and annual surveillance of peripheral arterial disease:
    • Diagnosis of suspected PAD:
      • Any sign or symptom with inconclusive physiologic testing, including exercise testing
    • Management of known PAD in any of the following scenarios:
      • Prior diagnosis of PAD with any of the following new or worsening signs or symptoms:
        1. Resting ischemic pain, non-healing wounds and gangrene
        2. Ischemic or discolored toes and livedo reticularis
        3. ISudden onset of pain associated with pulselessness, pallor, loss of motor or sensory function
      • Persistent claudication following a trial of three months of conservative therapy, including a supervised exercise therapy program in patients being evaluated for initial revascularization
      • Post revascularization with any new or worsening lower extremity non-joint pain not addressed above, following nondiagnostic physiologic testing (physiologic testing not required if venous graft was used)
      • Post revascularization when surveillance physiological testing is inconclusive (ABI > 1.40), borderline (ABI 0.91–0.99), or abnormal (ABI ≤ 0.90)
      • Baseline evaluation after surgical revascularization using a venous graft or after endovascular revascularization (angioplasty, stent or atherectomy)
      • Surveillance:
        1. After surgical revascularization using a venous graft: At three-month intervals within the first two years, and annually thereafter
        2. After endovascular revascularization (angioplasty, stent, or atherectomy): At four-month intervals within the first year, and annually thereafter
  • When imaging results are essential in establishing a diagnosis or direct management of any of the following conditions:
    • Arterial entrapment syndrome
    • Aneurysm/dilation
    • Arteriovenous malformation or arteriovenous fistula
    • Dissection or intramural hematoma

Peripheral arteries of upper extremities:

For the diagnosis, management and surveillance of PAD

  • Diagnosis of suspected PAD: Any sign or symptom with inconclusive physiologic testing (including exercise testing)
  • Management of know PAD in any of the following scenarios:
    • Resting ischemic pain or signs of atheroembolic disease of the upper extremities (such as ischemic or discolored fingers, livedo reticularis etc.)
    • Atypical symptoms with inconclusive physiological testing
    • Persistent claudication despite a trial of conservative therapy in initial revascularization candidates
    • Baseline study following percutaneous or surgical revascularization
    • Post-revascularization, with any new or worsening upper extremity signs or symptoms
    • Post revascularization when surveillance physiological testing is inconclusive
  • Surveillance: At six months, then annually following surgical revascularization
  • Vascular access procedures when ultrasound can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic in any of the following scenarios:
    • Evaluation of native arteries before AVF for dialysis access
    • Planned harvest of the radial artery (e.g., for CABG)
    • Complications of a vascular access procedure suggested by any of the following:
      • Pulsatile mass, bruit or thrill at the access site
      • Significant (more than expected post procedure) hematoma at the access site
      • Severe (more than expected post procedure) pain at the access site
      • Signs of ischemia or embolism in the involved extremity (such as ischemic or discolored fingers, livedo reticularis)
  • For the diagnosis and management of venous thrombosis or occlusion when ultrasound can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic
  • When the results of imaging are essential to establish a diagnosis or direct management of any of the following conditions:
    • Aneurysm
    • Arterial entrapment syndrome
    • AVM or AVF
    • Dissection or intramural hematoma

Abdomen or pelvis:

Imaging in acute aortic syndrome (includes aortic dissection, rupture, intramural hematoma, penetrating ulcer, and pseudoaneurysm) for any of the following scenarios:

  1. Initial diagnosis of suspected aortic disease
  2. Management of known aortic disease
  3. Annual surveillance of clinically stable aortic disease

Aneurysm of the abdominal aorta or iliac arteries for management, surveillance with surgical repair, or when duplex arterial ultrasound can’t be performed or is non-diagnostic in any of the following scenarios:

  1. Screening (one-time evaluation)
    1. Males between 60 and 75 years who have ever smoked or have a first-degree relative with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, or AAA
    2. Females between 60 and 75 years who have ever smoked and have a first-degree relative with AAA
    3. Previously diagnosed aneurysm of the thoracic aorta, iliac, femoral or popliteal arteries
  1. Diagnosis (in patients with suspected aortic or iliac aneurysm presenting with any of the following)
    1. Pulsatile abdominal mass or bruit
    2. Other imaging that is suggestive but not diagnostic
    3. Decreased or absent femoral pulses or bruit
    4. Lower extremity claudication
    5. Suggestive physiologic testing
    6. Signs or symptoms of atheroembolic disease in the lower extremities (e.g., ischemic or discolored toes, livedo reticularis)
  1. Management
    1. New or worsening symptoms or signs of aortic disease or enlargement by imaging
    2. Pre-procedure planning
    3. Baseline and initial 12-month evaluation following endograft repair
    4. Every six months for endografts that are increasing in size or endoleaks
  1. Surveillance
    1. Stable aortic aneurysm without prior repair
      1. 4.5 cm or greater: Every six months
      2. 3.5 to 4.4 cm: Six months and 12 months following diagnosis, then annually
      3. 3 to 3.4 cm: At one year following diagnosis, then every three years
    2. Stable iliac aneurysm without prior repair
      1. 3 cm or greater: Every six months
      2. Less than 3 cm: Annually
  • Stable aneurysms treated with open surgical repair: Every five years
  • Diagnosis and management of arteriovenous malformation or fistula.
  • Diagnosis and management of hematoma or hemorrhage within the abdomen
  • Diagnosis and management of mesenteric ischemia or portal hypertension
  • In patients suspected of having renal artery stenosis, or RAS, renovascular hypertension
  • Stenosis or occlusion of the abdominal aorta or branch vessels, not otherwise specified (in any of the following scenarios):
    1. Diagnosis of suspected aortoiliac stenosis or occlusion based on any of the following signs or symptoms:
      1. Abdominal or femoral bruit
      2. Decreased or absent femoral pulse
      3. Atypical lower extremity claudication (including buttocks or thighs)
      4. Leriche’s syndrome (buttock and thigh claudication, absent or decreased femoral pulses, erectile dysfunction)
      5. Evidence of atheroembolic disease of the lower extremities such as ischemic or discolored toes or livedo reticularis
      6. Physiological testing suggesting aorto-iliac disease
      7. Established femoral or popliteal artery aneurysm
    2. Management of known stenosis, presurgical evaluation or aortoiliac stenosis or occlusion when endovascular or surgical intervention is being considered
    3. Surveillance (annual) of surgical bypass grafts
  • Diagnosis and management of venous thrombosis or occlusion of major abdominal vessels in either of the following scenarios:
    1. Evaluation of the hepatic or portal veins when duplex venous ultrasound can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic
    2. Evaluation of all other abdominal venous structures
  • Diagnosis, management and surveillance of visceral artery aneurysm involving any of the following arteries: renal, celiac, splenic, hepatic, or superior or inferior mesenteric arteries and their branches
  • MRA or MRV is used for vascular evaluation before  transcatheter aortic valve implantation or replacement

Chest:

MRA/MRV of the chest is appropriate for any of the following conditions:

  • For acute aortic syndrome (aortic dissection, rupture, intramural hematoma, penetrating ulcer and pseudoaneurysm) in any of the following scenarios: 
    1. Initial diagnosis of suspected aortic disease
    2. Management of known aortic disease
    3. Annual surveillance of clinically stable aortic disease
  • For screening, diagnosis, management and surveillance for aortic aneurysm in any of the following scenarios:
    • Screening: Annual evaluation of patients with connective tissue disease or genetic mutations that predispose to aortic aneurysms as an alternative to screening with echocardiography or when echocardiography is nondiagnostic
    • Diagnosis of suspected thoracic aneurysm based on signs, symptoms or other imaging studies suggesting the diagnosis.
    • Management:
      1. Evaluation for disease progression based on new or progressive signs, symptoms or enlargement by imaging.
      2. Six-month follow up of newly diagnosed aneurysms to establish stability
      3. Endoleak evaluation
      4. Pre-procedure (surgical or endovascular repair) planning
    • Surveillance:
      1. Annual surveillance for aneurysms ≤ 4.4 cm
      2. Every six months for aneurysms larger than 4.4 cm
  • Atheromatous disease in adults only, to evaluate the thoracic aorta as a distal emboli source when a cardiac source hasn’t been identified on echocardiography and CTA is non-diagnostic or can’t be performed
  • MRA or MRV for the diagnosis and management of any of the following conditions:
    • Hematoma
    • Pulmonary ateriovenous malformation
    • Pulmonary sequestration
    • Subclavian steal syndrome
    • Superior vena cava syndrome
    • Systemic venous thrombosis or occlusion
    • Thoracic outlet syndrome
  • MRA or MRV is used for vascular evaluation before transcatheter aortic valve implantation or replacement

Allergy and contraindications:

The use of MRA is appropriate in patients with documented allergy to iodinated contrast material and in patients who have accelerating hypertension, or accelerating renal insufficiency or when the patient is at significant risk for contrast-induced renal failure.

MRA and MRV exclusions:
 
For any other indications not meeting inclusionary criteria.

77046, 77047, 77048, 77049

Basic benefit and medical policy

MRI of the breast

The safety and effectiveness of magnetic resonance imaging of the breast have been established. It may be considered a useful diagnostic option for patients meeting criteria.

Inclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Payment policy:

These procedures are subject to the PPO Radiology Management Program and may require prior authorization from Carelon Medical Benefits Management (formerly AIM Specialty Health®).

Inclusions:
 
Note: All the following policy statements refer to performing an MRI of the breast with a breast coil and the use of contrast. An MRI of the breast without the use of a breast coil, regardless of the clinical indication, is considered experimental.

  1. Annual MRI of the breast may be considered established for screening (as an adjunct to mammography) for breast cancer in individuals at high risk of breast cancer.
  2. High-risk considerations:
     
    There is no standardized method for determining a woman’s risk of breast cancer that incorporates all possible risk factors. There are validated risk prediction models, but they are based primarily on family history.

    The following list includes individual factors known to indicate a high risk of breast cancer:

    • An individual diagnosed with lobular carcinoma in situ, or LCIS, atypical lobular hyperplasia, or ALH, or atypical ductal hyperplasia, or ADH
    • An individual with a genetic predisposition to breast cancer, in themselves variant or a first-degree relative, that includes any of the following:
      • Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba syndrome
      • BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations
      • Cowden syndrome (PTEN)
      • Li-Fraumeni syndrome (TP53)
    • An individual with any of the following gene mutations: ATM, BARD 1, CDH1, CHEK2, NF1, PALB2, PTEN, RAD51C, RAD51D, STK11, TP53
    • An individual with a lifetime risk of 20% or greater of developing breast cancer identified by models that are largely defined by family history (e.g., BOADICEA/CanRisk, BRCAPRO, Tyrer-Cuzick). 
    • An individual who received radiotherapy to the chest between 10 and 30 years of age

      A number of factors may increase the risk of breast cancer but don’t by themselves indicate high risk. It’s possible that combinations of these factors may be indicative of high risk, but it’s not possible to give quantitative estimates of risk. As a result, it may be necessary to individualize the estimate of risk, whereby one would need to take into account the numerous risk factors. A number of risk factors, not individually indicating high risk, are included in the National Cancer Institute Breast Cancer Risk Assessment Tool (also called the Gail model). Risk factors in the model can be accessed online at bcrisktool.cancer.gov/.**
  3. MRI of the breast is considered established for the following indications:

    Suspected cancer:
  • Single follow-up MRI at six months following a breast MRI with BI-RADS category 3 findings
  • Differentiation of palpable mass from surgical scar tissue
  • Lesion and abnormality characterization when other imaging (i.e., ultrasound, mammography) are inadequate to localize the lesion for biopsy
  • Metastatic cancer of unknown primary and suspected to be of breast origin or malignant axillary lymph node (breast origin) and no mammographic, ultrasound or physical findings of primary breast carcinoma
  • Evaluation of pathologic nipple discharge after nondiagnostic mammography and ultrasound
  • Suspected breast implant-associated anaplastic large cell lymphoma in patients with textured implants when ultrasound is nondiagnostic

    Diagnostic workup and management:
  • To determine the extent of disease in biopsy-proven breast cancer in either of the following:
    • Ductal carcinoma in situ, or  DCIS, when the lesion is greater than 2 cm
    • Invasive carcinoma
  • To define the relationship of the tumor to the fascia and its extension into the pectoralis major, serratus anterior, or intercostal muscles before surgery
  • Preoperative tumor mapping of the involved breast to evaluate the presence of multicentric disease in patients with clinically localized breast cancer with the exception of DCIS, see criteria for DCIS above, who are candidates for breast-conservation therapy
  • Presurgical planning in patients with locally advanced breast cancer (before and after completion of neoadjuvant chemotherapy) to permit tumor localization and characterization
  • Suspected recurrence in patients with tissue transfer flaps (rectus, latissimus dorsi and gluteal) post-reconstruction
  • Suspected recurrence in patients with a prior history of breast cancer when clinical, mammographic or sonographic findings are inconclusive
  • Post-lumpectomy with close or positive margins to evaluate for residual disease
  • Malignant axillary lymph node (breast origin) and no breast mass on physical exam, mammogram or ultrasound.

    Surveillance:
    Annual surveillance is recommended for individuals who meet any of the following scenarios:

  • Patients with dense breasts treated with breast conserving surgery and radiation therapy
  • Those diagnosed with breast cancer before the age of 50
  • In patients with a personal history of breast cancer after breast conserving therapy or unilateral mastectomy who meet criteria for MRI breast screening (see inclusion A)

Exclusions:

  • Screening technique in average-risk patients
  • Screening technique for the detection of breast cancer when the sensitivity of mammography is limited (i.e., dense breasts)
  • Diagnosis of low-suspicion findings on conventional testing, immediate biopsy isn’t indicated, and the patient is referred for short-interval follow-up
  • Diagnosis of a suspicious breast lesion to avoid biopsy

Carelon Medical Benefits Management is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to manage prior authorizations for select services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan doesn't own or control this website.

78608, 78609, 78811-78816, 78999,** G0235,** A9593-A9595, A9800

Experimental
G0219, G0252

**Unlisted codes

Basic benefit and medical policy

Positron emission tomography for oncologic conditions

The safety and effectiveness of PET scanning for selected oncologic applications have been established. It’s a useful diagnostic option for individuals meeting patient selection criteria.

The inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Payment policy:

Services may be subject to prior authorization through the PPO Radiology Management Program, if applicable.

Inclusionary and exclusionary guidelines:

General statements:

All inclusionary and exclusionary statements apply to both PET scans and PET/ CT scans, i.e., PET scans with or without PET/CT fusion.

A PET or PET/CT may be appropriate for a patient with known diagnosis of a malignancy to determine the optimal anatomic site for a biopsy or other invasive diagnostic procedure if standard imaging is equivocal. It also may replace conventional imaging when conventional imaging would be inadequate for accurate staging, and when clinical management will depend upon the stage of disease. In general, for most solid tumors, a tissue diagnosis is made before the PET scan. PET scans following a tissue diagnosis are performed for staging, not diagnosis. If the results of the PET scan won’t influence treatment decisions, these situations would be considered not medically necessary.

PET scans may be considered appropriate for the following oncologic conditions:

Anal cancer

Inclusions:

  • For the diagnosis when standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for metastatic disease.
  • Indicated in either of the following:
    • Radiation planning for definitive treatment only
    • Standard imaging cannot be performed or is nondiagnostic for recurrent or progressive disease
  • For locally progressive or recurrent cancer with evidence of progression found on digital rectal exam.

Exclusions:

Conditions not listed above.

Bladder cancer

Inclusions:

  • Diagnostic workup:
    • Evaluation of stage II or stage III bladder cancer before definitive treatment when standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for metastatic disease.
    • When bone metastasis is suspected based on signs and symptoms and standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic.
  • Management:
    • Standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for recurrent or progressive disease.

Exclusions:

Conditions not listed above.

Bone cancer/sarcoma

Inclusions:

  • Diagnostic workup indicated in any of the following scenarios (all tumor types):
    • Initial work up of Ewing sarcoma and osteosarcoma if curative treatment planned
    • Standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for metastatic disease
    • Standard imaging suggests a resectable solitary metastasis
    • Baseline study before neoadjuvant chemotherapy
  • Management:
    • Indicated following completion of neoadjuvant chemotherapy
    • Standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for recurrent or progressive disease

Exclusions:

Conditions not listed above.

Brain cancer

Inclusions:

  • Diagnostic workup:
    • Evaluation of possible systemic disease in proven CNS lymphoma.
  • For staging, where lesions metastatic from the brain are identified.
  • For restaging, to distinguish recurrent tumor from radiation necrosis.

Exclusions:

Conditions not listed above.

Breast cancer

Inclusions:

  • Staging and restaging of breast cancer
  • Detecting locoregional or distant recurrence or metastasis (except axillary lymph nodes) when suspicion of disease is high and other imaging is inconclusive.

Exclusions:

  • For the differential diagnosis in individuals with suspicious breast lesions or an indeterminate/low suspicion finding on mammography.
  • Staging axillary lymph nodes.
  • For predicting pathologic response to neoadjuvant therapy for locally advanced disease.

Cancer of unknown primary

Inclusions:

  • Individuals with an unknown primary who meet all the following criteria:
    • In individuals with a single site of disease suspicious for cervical nodal metastases of unknown origin.
    • In individuals with a single site of metastatic disease if therapy with a curative intent is planned.
    • Individual has received a negative workup for an occult primary tumor.
    • The PET scan will be used to rule out or detect additional sites of disease that would eliminate the rationale for local or regional treatment.

Exclusions:

  • For individuals with an unknown primary, including, but not limited to, the following:
    • As part of the initial workup of an unknown primary
    • As part of the workup of individuals with multiple sites of disease

Cervical cancer

Inclusions:

  • For the initial staging of individuals with locally advanced cervical cancer.
  • For the evaluation of known or suspected recurrence.

Exclusions:

For the initial diagnosis of cervical cancer in all other situations.

Colorectal cancer

Inclusions:

  • Diagnostic workup:
    • Indicated when standing imaging (CT chest, abdomen and pelvis) can’t be performed or isn’t diagnostic for surgically curable metastatic disease.
  • Management indicated in any of the following scenarios:
    • CT is equivocal for metastatic disease and lesion or lesions are greater than 1 cm in diameter.
    • CT demonstrates recurrence that is potentially curable with surgery.
    • CT doesn’t demonstrate a focus of recurrence but carcinoembryonic antigen, or CEA, level is rising.
    • Signs or symptoms are suggestive of recurrence and CT is contraindicated.

Exclusions:

  • When used as a technique to assess the presence of scarring versus local bowel recurrence in individuals with previously resected colorectal cancer.
  • When used as a technique contributing to radiotherapy treatment planning.

Endometrial cancer

Inclusions:

  • Detection of lymph node metastases
  • Assessment of endometrial cancer recurrence

Exclusions:

Conditions not listed above.

Esophageal cancer

Inclusions:

  • Staging and restaging of esophageal cancer. 
  • Determining response to preoperative induction therapy.

Exclusions:

Detection of primary esophageal cancer.

Gastric (stomach) cancer

Inclusions:

  • Diagnosis, staging and restaging of gastric carcinoma if other imaging is inconclusive.
  • Determining response to preoperative induction therapy.

Exclusions:

Conditions not listed above.

Head and neck cancer

Inclusions:

  • For the evaluation of the head and neck in the initial diagnosis of suspected head and neck cancer.
  • For the initial staging of the disease.
  • For restaging of residual or recurrent disease during follow up.
  • Treatment response evaluation.

Exclusions:

Conditions not listed above.

Hepatobiliary cancer

Inclusions:

  • When standard imaging studies are equivocal or nondiagnostic regarding extent of disease.
  • When standard imaging before planned curative surgery has been performed and hasn’t demonstrated metastatic disease.

Exclusions:

Conditions not listed above.

Lung cancer

Inclusions:

  • Individuals with a solitary pulmonary nodule as a single-scan technique (not dual-time) to distinguish between benign and malignant disease when prior CT scan and chest X-ray findings are inconclusive or discordant,
  • To determine resectability for individuals with a presumed solitary metastatic lesion from lung cancer.
  • As a staging or restaging technique in those with known non-small-cell lung cancer.
  • PET scanning may be considered established in staging of small-cell lung cancer if limited stage is suspected based on standard imaging.

Exclusions:

  • PET scanning in staging of small-cell lung cancer if extensive stage is established and in all other aspects of managing small-cell lung cancer.
  • Conditions not listed above.

Lymphoma, including Hodgkin’s disease

Inclusions:

PET scanning as a technique for staging lymphoma either during initial staging or for restaging at follow-up.

Exclusions:

Conditions not listed above.

Melanoma

Inclusions:

Assessing extranodal spread of malignant melanoma at initial staging or at restaging during follow-up treatment for advanced disease.

Exclusions:

  • In managing stage 0, I or II melanoma.
  • When used as a technique to detect regional lymph node metastases in individuals with clinically localized melanoma who are candidates to undergo sentinel node biopsy.

Multiple myeloma

Inclusions:

For the initial and subsequent treatment strategy of multiple myeloma.

Exclusions:

Not applicable

Merkel cell carcinoma

Inclusions:

As clinically indicated.

Neuroendocrine tumors

Inclusions:

For the diagnosis, staging, restaging and monitoring of neuroendocrine tumors.

Exclusions:

Conditions not listed above.

Ovarian cancer

Inclusions:

  • Initial staging of ovarian cancer
  • For the evaluation of individuals with signs or symptoms of suspected ovarian cancer recurrence (restaging) when standard imaging, including CT scan, is inconclusive.

Exclusions:

For the initial evaluation (not staging) of known or suspected ovarian cancer in all other situations

Pancreatic cancer

Inclusions:

For the initial diagnosis and staging of pancreatic cancer when other imaging and biopsy are inconclusive.

Exclusions:

Evaluating other aspects of pancreatic cancer

Penile cancer

Inclusions:

  • Diagnostic workup indicated in either of the following scenarios:
    • Standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for metastatic disease.
    • Staging of penile cancer when pelvic lymph nodes are enlarged on CT or MRI and needle biopsy isn’t technically feasible.
  • Management indicated in any of the following scenarios:
    • Radiation planning for preoperative or definitive treatment only.
    • Standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for recurrent or progressive disease.
    • Restaging of local recurrence when pelvic exenteration surgery is planned.

Exclusions:

All other indications

Pleural, thymus, heart and mediastinum cancer

Inclusions:

  • For surgical resection being considered and metastatic disease hasn’t been detected by CT or MRI.
  • For surgical evaluation of malignant pleural mesothelioma (clinical stage I-IIIA and epithelioid histology), after CT chest and abdomen.
  • For restaging after induction chemotherapy if the patient is a surgical candidate.
  • For radiation planning for definitive treatment.

Exclusions:

All other indications

Prostate cancer

Inclusions:

  • PET scanning with carbon 11 choline and fluorine18 fluciclovine for evaluating suspected or biochemically recurrent prostate cancer.
  • PSMA PET scanning with Gallium Ga-68 prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA)-11 and Piflufolastat fluorine-18 in individuals diagnosed with NCCN unfavorable intermediate-, high- or very-high risk prostate cancer for the following indications: 
    1. As an alternative to standard imaging of bone and soft tissue for initial staging,
    2. For the detection of biochemically (elevated PSA) recurrent disease,
    3. As workup for progression with bone scan plus CT or MRI for the evaluation of bone, pelvis and abdomen.
  • Individuals with metastatic prostate cancer for whom lutetium Lu-177 vipivotide tetraxetan PSMA-directed therapy is indicated.

Exclusions:

PET scanning for all other indications.

Renal cell carcinoma

Inclusions:

Not applicable

Exclusions:

PET scanning is considered experimental in all aspects of managing renal cancer.

Soft tissue sarcoma

Inclusions:

  • Diagnostic workup indicated in any of the following scenarios (excluding desmoid tumors):
    • Standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for metastatic disease
    • Standard imaging suggests a resectable solitary metastasis
    • Baseline study before neoadjuvant chemotherapy
    • Initial staging for rhabdomyosarcoma
    • Determination of response to therapy, gastrointestinal stromal tumor, or GIST, for initial staging and re-staging when there is documented recurrence
  • Management:
    • Indicated following completion of neoadjuvant chemotherapy.
    • Standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for recurrent or progressive disease.

Exclusions:

  • When used in evaluation of soft tissue sarcoma, including, but not limited to, the following applications:
    • Distinguishing between low grade and high grade soft tissue sarcoma
    • Detecting locoregional recurrence
    • Detecting distant metastasis

Testicular cancer

Inclusions:

  • Diagnostic workup:
    • Indicated when standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for metastatic disease.
  • Management:
    • Standard imaging cannot be performed or is nondiagnostic for recurrent or progressive disease.
    • Residual mass greater than 3 cm and normal tumor markers after completion of chemotherapy.

Exclusions:

All other indications.

Thyroid cancer

Inclusions:

  • For the initial treatment strategy of thyroid cancer types known not to concentrate radioactive iodine, or RAI.
  • For subsequent treatment strategy for differentiated thyroid cancer of follicular cell origin that is known to concentrate RAI in all the following situations:
    • When done following prior treatment with thyroidectomy and radioiodine ablation.
    • With a current serum thyroglobulin > 10 ng/ml (except in the setting of documented anti-thyroglobulin antibodies).
    • With a negative whole body RAI scan in the past.

Exclusions:

For the evaluation of known or suspected differentiated or poorly differentiated thyroid cancer in all other situations.

Vaginal/vulvar cancers

Inclusions:

  • Diagnostic workup indicated in the following scenario:
    • Standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for metastatic disease.
  • Management indicated in any of the following scenarios:
    • Radiation planning for preoperative or definitive treatment only.
    • Standard imaging can’t be performed or is nondiagnostic for recurrent or progressive disease.
    • Restaging of local recurrence when pelvic exenteration surgery is planned.

Exclusions:

All other indications

Cancer surveillance

Inclusions:

Not applicable

Exclusions:

When used as a surveillance tool for individuals with cancer or with a history of cancer. A scan is considered surveillance if performed more than six months after completion of cancer therapy (12 months for lymphoma) in individuals without objective signs or symptoms suggestive of cancer recurrence.

81161-81479, 88271, 88272, 88273,
88274, 88275, 88291, 89290, 89291

Experimental:

0254U, 0396U

Basic benefit and medical policy

Genetic testing: Preimplantation

Preimplantation genetic diagnosis may be considered established as an adjunct to in-vitro fertilization in individuals or couples who have the IVF benefit and meet specific criteria. (See Inclusions)

Preimplantation genetic screening as an adjunct to in-vitro fertilization is considered experimental.

Inclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Benefit policy:

Note: To access benefits for preimplantation genetic testing, the definition of infertility must be met.** A benefit document (certificate of coverage or rider) may specify that the definition of infertility isn’t a requirement for preimplantation genetic services; only in this case is the requirement of meeting the definition of infertility waived.  

**Refer to the medical policy “Infertility Diagnosis” for infertility definition and criteria.

Note: The member benefit needs to be verified for coverage or exclusion of preimplantation genetic testing.

Inclusions:

  1. For preimplantation genetic diagnosis in an embryo identified as at elevated risk of a significant genetic disorder, the individual or couple must meet both of the following:
    • Have the benefit for in-vitro fertilization and meet criteria to access the benefit (such as  have a diagnosis of infertility)
    • Meet one of the following criteria:
      1. Both partners are known carriers of a single gene autosomal recessive disorder
      2. One partner is a known carrier of a single gene autosomal recessive disorder, and the partners have an offspring who has been diagnosed with that recessive disorder
      3. One partner is a known carrier of a single gene autosomal dominant disorder
      4. One partner is a known carrier of a single X-linked disorder
  2. For preimplantation genetic diagnosis in an embryo identified as at elevated risk for a structural chromosomal abnormality, the individual or couple must (both of the following):
    • Have the benefit for in-vitro fertilization and meet criteria to access the benefit (such as have a diagnosis of infertility)
    • One partner with balanced or unbalanced chromosomal translocation
  3. Individual consideration may be given to the individual or couple who have the in-vitro fertilization benefit and meet at least one criterion under 1. or 2. (above) but doesn’t have a diagnosis of infertility.

Exclusions:

All other situations than those specified above.

Preimplantation genetic screening as an adjunct to IVF is considered experimental.

Policy guidelines:

In some cases, involving a single X-linked disorder, determination of the sex of the embryo provides sufficient information for excluding or confirming the disorder.

This policy doesn’t address the myriad ethical issues associated with preimplantation genetic testing that should have been carefully discussed between the treated individual or couple and the physician.

81162, 81163, 81164, 81165, 81166,
81167, 81212, 81215, 81216, 81217, 81301, 81307, 81308, 81408,** 81432,
81479,*** 0037U, 0172U, 0239U

**Ataxia-telangiectasia mutated, or ATM
***Policy criteria must be met. This code is subject to individual review.

Experimental:
0129U

Basic benefit and medical policy

Germline/somatic biomarker testing for treatment of prostate cancer

Germline BRCA1/2 variant analysis for individuals with metastatic castrate-resistant prostate cancer, or mCRPC, to select treatment with FDA-approved targeted therapies may be considered medically necessary.

All other uses of germline BRCA1/2 variant analysis to guide prostate cancer targeted therapy haven’t been demonstrated and considered experimental.

Somatic testing using tissue biopsy or circulating tumor DNA testing (liquid biopsy) for homologous recombination repair, or HRR, gene alterations (BRCA1, BRCA2, ATM, BARD1, BRIP1, CDK12, CHEK1, CHEK2, FANCL, PALB2, RAD51B, RAD51C, RAD51D, and RAD54L) to select treatment for mCRPC with FDA-approved targeted therapies may be considered medically necessary.

All other uses of somatic testing using tissue biopsy or circulating tumor DNA (liquid biopsy) for HRR gene alterations to guide prostate cancer targeted therapy are considered experimental.

Somatic testing using circulating tumor DNA testing (liquid biopsy) for BRCA1, BRCA2, and ATM alterations to select treatment for mCRPC with FDA-approved targeted therapies may be considered medically necessary.

All other uses of somatic testing using circulating tumor DNA testing (liquid biopsy) to guide prostate cancer targeted therapy are considered experimental.

Simultaneous testing using liquid and tumor biopsies (outside of paired or concurrent somatic-germline testing) to guide treatment in individuals with prostate cancer is considered experimental.

This policy is effective March 1, 2024. 

Inclusions:

The clinical utility of germline and somatic biomarker testing (including liquid biopsy) for targeted treatment in prostate cancer (BRCA1/2, homologous recombination repair gene alterations) has been established when any of the following criteria are met:

  • Somatic testing using tissue biopsy or circulating tumor DNA testing (liquid biopsy) for homologous recombination repair (HRR) gene alterations (BRCA1, BRCA2, ATM, BARD1, BRIP1, CDK12, CHEK1, CHEK2, FANCL, PALB2, RAD51B, RAD51C, RAD51D, and RAD54L) to select treatment for metastatic castrate-resistant prostate cancer, or mCRPC, with FDA-approved targeted therapies.
  • Somatic testing using circulating tumor DNA testing (liquid biopsy) for BRCA1, BRCA2, and ATM alterations to select treatment for mCRPC with FDA-approved targeted therapies.

Exclusions:

  • All other uses of germline BRCA1/2 variant analysis to guide prostate cancer targeted therapy are considered experimental.
  • All other uses of somatic testing using tissue biopsy for HRR gene alterations to guide prostate cancer targeted therapy are considered experimental.
  • All other uses of somatic testing using circulating tumor DNA testing (liquid biopsy) to guide prostate cancer targeted therapy are considered experimental.
  • Simultaneous testing using liquid and tumor biopsies (outside of paired or concurrent somatic-germline testing) to guide treatment in individuals with prostate cancer is considered experimental.

81210, 81275, 81276, 81301, 81311,
81403, 81404, 88363, 81455, 81456,
0037U, 0111U, 0239U, 0242U, 0326U,
0334U       

Experimental/not covered:
86152, 86153

Basic benefit and medical policy

Testing for targeted treatment/immunotherapy in metastatic colorectal cancer

The safety and effectiveness of KRAS, NRAS, BRAF, MMR/MSI, HER2 and TMB mutation analyses on tumor tissue have been established and may be considered a useful diagnostic option for individuals with metastatic colorectal cancer to select individuals for treatment with FDA-approved therapies. It’s a useful therapeutic option when indicated.

The safety and effectiveness of KRAS, NRAS, BRAF, TMB and MSI variant analysis using circulating tumor DNA or circulating tumor cell testing (liquid biopsy) to guide treatment for patients with metastatic colorectal cancer is considered established. It’s a useful therapeutic option when indicated.

Inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Jan. 1, 2024.

Inclusions:

  • KRAS, NRAS and BRAF (V600E) mutation analysis is established in patients with metastatic colorectal cancer in order to determine their nonresponse to EGFR inhibitor drugs such as Vectibix® (panitumumab) and Erbitux® (cetuximab).
  • Human epidermal receptor 2, or HER2,  amplification testing is established for patients with metastatic colorectal cancer. Anti-HER2 therapy is only indicated in HER2-ampliified tumors that are also RAS and BRAF wild type. If the tumor is already known to have a KRAS/NRAS or BRAF mutation, HER2 testing is not indicated.
  • Mismatch repair/microsatellite instability testing may be considered established to select individuals for treatment with FDA-approved therapies. (Mismatch repair and microsatellite testing of colorectal cancer tissue may be indicated for Lynch syndrome.)
  • TMB testing may be established for the treatment of adult and pediatric patients with unresectable or metastatic tumor mutational burden-high (TMB-H) [≥10 mutations/megabase (mut/Mb)] solid tumors, as determined by an FDA-approved test, that have progressed following prior treatment and who have no satisfactory alternative treatment options (example, Keytruda).
  • A Proprietary Laboratory Analyses, or PLA, test is considered established when all the following criteria are met:
    • The individual meets the FDA criteria listed in the label for the therapeutic.
    • The test is an FDA-approved companion diagnostic test.

Circulating tumor DNA (liquid biopsy):

The clinical utility of circulating tumor DNA and circulating tumor cells for the management of advanced solid cancers has been established when all the following criteria are met:

  • May be considered established for guidance in the selection of appropriate targeted FDA therapeutic options for any of the following conditions:
    • Metastatic cancers
    • Inoperable locally advanced cancers
    • Refractory cancers
    • Recurrent cancers
    • Advanced cancer (stages III or IV)
  • Individual hasn’t been previously tested using the same liquid biopsy panel, unless new primary cancer diagnosis is made, and further cancer treatment is being considered or the individual is experiencing a relapse.
  • There is clinical documentation that tissue-based testing can’t be performed (e.g., insufficient sample, inaccessible tumor or where there may be a delay in obtaining tumor sample) or tissue-based testing isn’t required when there is an FDA-approved companion diagnostic device that is a circulating tumor test (liquid biopsy).

Exclusions:

  • The use of circulating tumor DNA and circulating tumor cells is considered experimental when the criteria above aren’t met.
  • The use of circulating tumor DNA and circulating tumor cell testing is considered experimental for all other indications related to solid tumors, including measurable residual disease testing and cancer screening (e.g., Galleri).

81210, 81301, 81455, 81462, 81463, 81464, 88341, 88342, 88360, 88361, 81479,** 0037U, 0239U, 0242U, 0326U, 0334U

**Unlisted code

Basic benefit and medical policy

GT- Somatic biomarker testing for immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy

The safety and effectiveness of somatic biomarker testing for immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy has been established. It may be considered a useful option when indicated, effective March 1, 2024.

Inclusions and exclusions:

BRAF V600 variant testing:

BRAF V600 variant testing of tumor tissue or circulating tumor DNA (liquid biopsy) to select individuals for immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy may be considered established in the following circumstances:

  • Individuals with unresectable or metastatic melanoma, or
  • Metastatic colorectal cancer

And

  • The individual doesn’t have any FDA-labeled contraindications to the requested agent and the agent is intended to be used consistently with the FDA-approved label.

Analysis of tumor tissue for the somatic BRAF V600 variant to select individuals for immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy is considered experimental in all other situations.

Mismatch repair/microsatellite instability testing:

Mismatch repair/microsatellite instability, or MMR/MSI, testing of tumor tissue or circulating tumor DNA (liquid biopsy)** to select individuals for immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy may be considered established in the following circumstances:

  • Individuals with advanced or metastatic colorectal cancer, or
  • Individuals with advanced endometrial carcinoma who have disease progression following prior systemic therapy and aren’t candidates for curative surgery or radiation, or
  • Individuals with unresectable or metastatic solid tumors who have progressed following prior treatment and who have no satisfactory alternative treatment options.

And

  • The individual doesn’t have any FDA-labeled contraindications to the requested agent and the agent is intended to be used consistently with the FDA-approved label.

Mismatch repair/microsatellite instability testing to select individuals for immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy is considered experimental in all other situations.

Programmed cell death ligand-1 testing:

Programmed cell death ligand protein-1, or PD-L1,  testing of tumor tissue or circulating tumor DNA (liquid biopsy) to select individuals for immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy may be considered established in the following circumstances:

  • Individuals with metastatic non-small cell lung cancer, known as NSCLC, or
  • Individuals with metastatic or unresectable, recurrent head and neck squamous cell carcinomas, or
  • Individuals with locally advanced or metastatic esophageal or gastroesophageal junction carcinoma that isn’t amenable to surgical resection or definitive chemoradiation after one or more prior lines of systemic therapy for patients with tumors of squamous cell histology, or
  • Individuals with persistent, recurrent or metastatic cervical cancer, or
  • Individuals with locally recurrent unresectable or metastatic hormone receptor-negative/HER2-negative (triple negative) breast cancer.

And

  • The individual doesn’t have any FDA-labeled contraindications to the requested agent and the agent is intended to be used consistently with the FDA-approved label.

PD-L1 testing of tumor tissue to select individuals for immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy is considered experimental in all other situations.

Circulating tumor DNA (liquid biopsy):

Variant analysis using circulating tumor DNA (liquid biopsy) is considered established for individuals with unresectable or metastatic melanoma or metastatic colorectal cancer to select treatment with FDA-approved targeted therapies when tissue-based analysis isn’t clinically feasible.

Tumor mutational burden testing, or TMB:

TMB testing may be established for the treatment of adult and pediatric patients with unresectable or metastatic tumor mutational burden-high (TMB-H) [≥10 mutations/megabase (mut/Mb)] solid tumors, as determined by an FDA-approved test, which have progressed following prior treatment and who have no satisfactory alternative treatment options (example, Keytruda).

81349, 81415, 81416, 81417, 81425,
81426, 81427, 0094U       

Experimental:
0213U, 214U, 0215U, 0335U, 0336U

Basic benefit and medical policy

Whole exome and genome testing

The safety and effectiveness of whole exome sequencing, known as WES, may be considered established. It may be considered a useful diagnostic tool when indicated.

The safety and effectiveness of rapid whole exome sequencing or rapid whole genome sequencing, with trio testing when possible, may be considered established. It may be considered a useful diagnostic tool when indicated. 

WES is considered experimental for the diagnosis of genetic disorders in all other clinical situations.

Whole genome sequencing, or WGS, is considered experimental for the diagnosis of genetic disorders in all other clinical situations.

WES and WGS are considered experimental for screening for genetic disorders.

Procedure code *0094U changed from experimental to payable when criteria are met. Inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Nov. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

Whole exome sequencing, with trio testing (testing child and both parents) when possible, may be considered established for the evaluation of unexplained congenital or neurodevelopmental disorders in children when all the following criteria are met:

  1. The patient has been evaluated by a specialist with specific expertise in clinical genetics and counseled about the potential risks of genetic testing.
  2. There is a potential for a change in management and clinical outcome for the individual being tested.
  3. A genetic etiology is the most likely explanation for the phenotype despite previous genetic testing, such as chromosomal microarray or targeted single gene testing, or when previous genetic testing has failed to yield a diagnosis and the affected individual is faced with invasive procedures or testing as the next diagnostic step, such as muscle biopsy.

Rapid whole exome sequencing or rapid whole genome sequencing, with trio testing (testing child and both parents) when possible, for the evaluation of critically ill infants and children in neonatal or pediatric intensive care with a suspected genetic disorder of unknown etiology when at least one of the following criteria is met:

  1. Multiple congenital anomalies
  2. An abnormal laboratory test or clinical features suggests a genetic disease or complex metabolic phenotype
  3. An abnormal response to standard therapy for a major underlying condition

Exclusions:

  • Rapid whole exome sequencing or rapid whole genome sequencing, with trio testing when possible, is not established for the evaluation of critically ill infants and children in neonatal or pediatric intensive care with a suspected genetic disorder of unknown etiology in cases where:
    • An infection with normal response to therapy
    • Isolated prematurity
    • Isolated unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
    • Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
    • Confirmed genetic diagnosis explains illness
    • Isolated transient neonatal tachypnea
    • Nonviable neonates
  • WES and WGS for the diagnosis of genetic disorders in all other situations
  • WES and WGS for the screening of genetic

81479,** 81599,** 81541, 81542, 81551, 0037U, 0047U

**Unlisted codes

Basic benefit and medical policy

Gene expression profile analysis for prostate cancer

The safety and effectiveness of gene expression analysis to guide the management of prostate cancer have been established. It may be considered a useful option when indicated.

The inclusionary criteria have been updated, effective
March 1, 2024.

Inclusions:

Inclusions for Decipher (for either of the following):

  • Post-biopsy for NCCN very-low-, low-risk, favorable intermediate- and unfavorable intermediate-risk prostate cancer in patients with at least 10 years of life expectancy who haven’t received treatment for prostate cancer and are candidates for active surveillance or definitive therapy.
  • Post-radical prostatectomy for pT2 with positive margins, any pT3 disease and rising PSA (above nadir).

Inclusions for Oncotype DX Prostate, Prolaris, ProMark:

Men with NCCN very-low-risk, low-risk and favorable intermediate-risk prostate cancer who have a greater than 10 years of  life expectancy who haven’t received treatment for prostate cancer and are candidates for active surveillance or definitive therapy.

Inclusions for AR-V7 testing:

Testing can be considered to help guide selection of therapy in the post-abiraterone/enzalutamide metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer, or CRPC, setting.

Proprietary Laboratory Analyses, or PLA, Testing:

A PLA test as an FDA-approved companion diagnostic to determine the appropriate therapeutic drug is considered established when both of the following criteria are met:

  • Biomarker confirmation is required by an FDA-approved or FDA-cleared test before initiating treatment (as described in the FDA prescribing label of the therapeutic in the section “Indications and Usage”)
  • The test is an FDA-approved companion diagnostic 

Information regarding FDA-approved companion diagnostic tests should be obtained from the FDA’s webpage List of Cleared or Approved Companion Diagnostic Devices (In Vitro and Imaging Tools) at fda.gov/medical-devices/in-vitro-diagnostics/list-cleared-or-approved-companion-diagnostic-devices-in-vitro-and-imaging-tools.**

For accuracy, access the information directly from the FDA site because the website is updated frequently.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan doesn't own or control this website.

81504, 81540

Basic benefit and medical policy

Microarray testing for cancer of unknown primary origin

Microarray genetic testing is considered experimental to identify the origin of a cancer of unknown primary, or to distinguish a primary from a metastatic tumor. The peer reviewed medical literature hasn’t yet shown that the test has sufficient diagnostic accuracy to provide clinically relevant information when compared to other available diagnostic studies. The policy was reviewed and updated, effective March 1, 2024.

90678

Basic benefit and medical policy

Abrysvo (respiratory syncytial virus vaccine)

The United States Food and Drug Administration has updated the indications for Abrysvo (respiratory syncytial virus vaccine), effective Aug. 22, 2023.

Abrysvo (respiratory syncytial virus vaccine) is a vaccine indicated for active immunization of pregnant individuals at 32 through 36 weeks gestational age for the prevention of lower respiratory tract disease and severe LRTD caused by respiratory syncytial virus in infants from birth through 6 months of age.

95249, 95250, 95251, A4238, A4239,
A9276, A9277, A9278, A9279, E2102,
E2103, 0446T, 0447T, 0448T 

Not covered:
99091, S1030, S1031

Basic benefit and medical policy

Continuous invasive glucose monitoring

The safety and effectiveness of FDA-approved continuous glucose monitoring systems have been established. They may be considered useful therapeutic devices for patients meeting the relevant patient selection criteria.

Inclusionary criteria have been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Payment policy:

Northwood, Inc., an independent company, manages prior authorizations and the supplier network for DME/P&O for most contacts. Please reference member benefits before service.

Inclusions:
 
Continuous (i.e., long-term) monitoring of glucose levels in interstitial fluid, including real-time monitoring, as a technique in diabetic monitoring may be considered established for all individuals who are insulin-requiring.     

Or

Continuous (i.e., long-term) monitoring of glucose levels in interstitial fluid, including real-time monitoring, as a technique in diabetic monitoring may be considered established for all individuals who are non-insulin requiring (not on insulin therapy) and:

  • The individual has a history of problematic hypoglycemia with documentation of at least one of the following:
    • Recurrent (more than one) level 2** hypoglycemic events (glucose <54mg/dL (3.0mmol/L) that persist despite multiple (more than one) attempts to adjust medication(s) or modify the diabetes treatment plan.
    • A history of one level 3** hypoglycemic event (glucose <54mg/dL (3.0mmol/L) characterized by altered mental or physical state requiring third-party assistance for treatment of hypoglycemia.

Or

Continuous (i.e., long-term) monitoring of glucose levels in interstitial fluid, including real-time monitoring, as a technique in diabetic monitoring may be considered established for pregnant individuals who are non-insulin requiring (not on insulin therapy) and who experience postprandial (as defined by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists) hyperglycemia.

**Level 1 hypoglycemia is defined as a measurable glucose. concentration <70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) but ≥54 mg/dL (3.0 mmol/L)
Level 2 hypoglycemia is defined as a blood glucose. concentration <54 mg/dL (3.0 mmol/L).
Level 3 hypoglycemia is defined as a severe event characterized by altered mental or physical functioning that requires assistance from another person for recovery.

Exclusions:

  • Patients who haven’t demonstrated an understanding of the technology.
  • Patients not capable of using the device to recognize alerts and alarms.
  • Patients not expected to adhere to a comprehensive diabetes treatment plan.
  • Use of a continuous glucose monitoring device for convenience purposes such as (but not limited to) lifestyle or employment circumstances.
  • All other uses of diabetic monitoring for insulin and non-insulin requiring individuals that haven’t met above criteria.

Additional coverage guidelines:

Replacement:

Replacement of a CGMS may be considered when:

  • The transmitter is out of warranty; or 
  • The transmitter is malfunctioning and replacement parts are unavailable; and
  • There is documented evidence of patient compliance provided, if no evidence of compliance is provided or if the member isn’t compliant, benefit of CGMS may be withdrawn.

Continuation:

Continuation of sensor use after one year may be considered when both of the following are met:

  • The CGMS has been previously approved by the health plan or the CGMS is in use before the user enrolled in the health plan.
  • There is documented evidence of patient compliance provided, if no evidence of compliance is provided or if the member isn’t compliant, benefit of CGMS may be withdrawn.

All covered supplies must be compatible with the CGMS.

95801, 95782, 95783, 95800, 95805, 95806, 95807, 96808, 95810, 95811, G0398, G0399

Experimental
94762, E0445, G0400

Basic benefit and medical policy

Diagnosis of sleep disorders

The policy has been updated to cover procedure code *95801 when criteria are met, effective Jan. 1, 2024.

Polysomnography, or PSG, is an attended (supervised) sleep study (sleep apnea test) performed in a hospital or freestanding sleep laboratory. The safety and effectiveness of PSG, including a split-night PSG, have been established. It may be considered a useful diagnostic option when indicated.

The safety and effectiveness of an unattended sleep study or sleep apnea test with a minimum of three recording channels (using, at a minimum, the following sensors: nasal pressure with chest and abdominal respiratory inductance plethysmography and oximetry; or using Peripheral Arterial Tone, or PAT, with oximetry and actigraphy) in a home setting (home sleep apnea test) have been established. It may be considered a useful diagnostic option when indicated.

The safety and effectiveness of multiple sleep latency testing, or MSLT, have been established. It may be a useful tool in diagnosing narcolepsy.

Noninvasive pulse oximetry as a sole test (as an alternative to polysomnography or as a cardiorespiratory study for diagnosing sleep related breathing disorders) is considered experimental. Its effectiveness hasn’t been established.

Inclusionary and exclusionary guidelines:

Initial unattended (unsupervised) home sleep apnea test, or HSAT
 
This should be performed with a minimum of three recording channels (using, at a minimum, the following sensors: nasal pressure, chest and abdominal respiratory inductance plethysmography, and oximetry; or using Peripheral Arterial Tone, or PAT, with oximetry and actigraphy).

  1. Adult individuals ages 18 or older with high pretest probability for moderate to severe OSA and either a, b or c:
    1. Observed apneas during sleep
    2. A combination of at least two of the following:
      • Excessive daytime sleepiness evidenced by an Epworth sleepiness >10, inappropriate daytime napping (e.g., during driving, conversation or eating), or sleepiness that interferes with daily activities and isn’t explained by other conditions.
      • Habitual snoring or gasping/choking episodes associated with awakenings.
      • Treatment-resistant hypertension (persistent hypertension in an individual taking three or more antihypertensive medications).
      • Obesity, defined as a body mass index  > 30 kg/m2 or neck circumference defined as >17 inches in men or >16 inches in women.
      • Craniofacial or upper airway soft tissue abnormalities
      • Unexplained nocturia
    3. History of stroke (more than 30 days previously), transient ischemic attack, coronary artery disease, or sustained supraventricular tachycardic or bradycardic arrhythmias in patients who meet one of the six criteria listed under “b” above.
  2. No exclusions or contraindications to a home sleep apnea test

Exclusions and contraindications to HSAT:

  • Younger than 18 years of age
  • Class III obesity, formerly referred to as morbid obesity, defined as a BMI >40 kg/m2 or the individual is 100 pounds over the ideal body weight for their height
  • Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
  • Narcolepsy
  • Idiopathic hypersomnia
  • Periodic limb movement disorder, or PLMD, when one of the following are present: pregnancy, renal failure, iron deficiency anemia, peripheral neuropathy, use of antidepressant or antipsychotic medications, or continued hypersomnia and clinical symptoms of PLMD after sleep disordered breathing is ruled out by home sleep apnea testing
  • Central sleep disorder
  • Parasomnias
  • Nocturnal seizures
  • REM behavior disorder
  • Moderate or severe congestive heart failure – New York Heart Association, or NYHA, class III or IV
  • Congestive heart failure with a history of ventricular fibrillation or sustained ventricular tachycardia in an individual who doesn’t have an implanted defibrillator
  • Moderate or severe chronic pulmonary disease – forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity, or FEV1/FVC, less than or equal to 0.7 and FEV1 less than 80% of predicted
  • Documented neuromuscular disease (e.g., Parkinson’s, myotonic dystrophy, ALS)
  • Severe insomnia or chronic opioid use
  • Impairment that results in inability to apply the home sleep apnea testing equipment
  • Oxygen dependence

Repeat unattended (unsupervised) follow-up home sleep apnea test 

This should be performed with a minimum of three recording channels using, at a minimum, the following sensors: nasal pressure, chest, and abdominal respiratory inductance plethysmography and oximetry; or using PAT with oximetry and actigraphy).

Inclusions (one of the following):

  • To assess efficacy of surgery or oral appliances or devices.
  • To re-evaluate the diagnosis of OSA and need for continued continuous positive airway pressure, e.g., if there is a significant change in weight or change in symptoms suggesting that CPAP should be retitrated or possibly discontinued.

Initial attended (supervised) sleep study performed in a sleep lab

Adults with suspected OSA:

Inclusions:

  1. Adult individuals 18 years of age or older with a moderate to high pretest probability for OSA and either a, b or c
    1. Observed apneas during sleep
    2. A combination of at least two of the following:
      • Excessive daytime sleepiness evidenced by an Epworth sleepiness >10, inappropriate daytime napping (e.g., during driving, conversation or eating), or sleepiness that interferes with daily activities and isn’t explained by other conditions
      • Habitual snoring or gasping/choking episodes associated with awakenings
      • Treatment-resistant hypertension (persistent hypertension in an individual taking three or more antihypertensive medications)
      • Obesity, defined as a BMI >30 kg/m2 or neck circumference > 17 inches in men or >16 inches in women
      • Craniofacial or upper airway soft tissue abnormalities
      • Unexplained nocturia
    3. History of stroke (more than 30 days previously), transient ischemic attack, coronary artery disease, or sustained tachycardic or bradycardic arrhythmias in patients who meet ONE of 6 criteria listed under “b” above.

    Or

  2. When unattended (unsupervised) home sleep apnea test is contraindicated (see exclusions and contraindications to unattended home sleep apnea test above), or
  3. When the initial unattended (unsupervised) study was negative, inadequate, equivocal or non-diagnostic and clinical suspicion for OSA remains

Adults with suspected sleep disorders other than OSA:

An in-lab supervised sleep study may be considered when there is suspicion of any of the following:

  • Central sleep apnea
  • Narcolepsy
  • Nocturnal seizures
  • Parasomnia
  • Idiopathic hypersomnia
  • Periodic limb movement disorder, or PLMD, to support a suspicion of PLMD in this context, one of the following must be documented: pregnancy, renal failure, iron deficiency anemia, peripheral neuropathy, use of antidepressant or antipsychotic medications, or continued hypersomnia and clinical symptoms of PLMD after sleep disordered breathing is ruled out by home sleep apnea testing
  • Nocturnal desaturation (due to severe COPD or certain restrictive thoracic disorders)
  • Any of the following conditions (right heart failure, polycythemia, cardiac arrhythmias during sleep, or pulmonary hypertension) when the etiology is unclear

Children (younger than age 18)

Inclusions:

Pediatric individuals younger than 18 years old with a moderate to high probability of OSA and one of the following solid bullets.

  • Habitual snoring in association with one or more of criteria below:
    • Restless or disturbed sleep
    • Behavioral disturbance or learning disorders including deterioration in academic performance, attention deficit disorder, hyperactivity
    • Frequent awakenings
    • Enuresis (bedwetting)
    • Growth retardation or failure to thrive
  • Excessive daytime somnolence or altered mental status not explained by other conditions
  • Polycythemia not explained by other conditions
  • Cor pulmonale not explained by other conditions
  • Witnessed apnea with duration greater than two respiratory cycles
  • Labored breathing during sleep
  • Hypertrophy of the tonsils or adenoids in individuals at significant surgical risk such that the exclusion of OSA would allow avoidance of surgery
  • Suspected congenital central alveolar hypoventilation syndrome or sleep-related hypoventilation due to neuromuscular disease or chest wall deformities
  • Clinical evidence of a sleep-related breathing disorder in infants who have experienced an apparent life-threatening event
  • For exclusion of OSA in an individual who has undergone adenotonsillectomy for suspected OSA more than eight weeks previously
  • The initial study was inadequate, equivocal or non-diagnostic and the child’s parents or caregiver report that the breathing patterns observed at home were different from those during testing.

Repeat attended (supervised) sleep study performed in a sleep lab

Adults (ages 18 or older):

Inclusions:

  • Equipment failure or less than six hours of recording.
  • Initial PSG is negative and a clinical suspicion of OSA remains.
  • To initiate and titrate CPAP in adult individuals who have one of the following:
    • An AHI or RDI of at least 15 events per hour
    • An AHI or RDI of at least five events per hour in an individual with excessive daytime sleepiness or unexplained hypertension.
      Note: A split-night study, in which moderate to severe OSA is documented during the first portion of the study using PSG, followed by CPAP during the second portion of the study, can eliminate the need for a second study to titrate CPAP.
  • To reevaluate the diagnosis of OSA and need for continued CPAP (e.g., if there is a significant change in weight or change in symptoms suggesting that CPAP should be retitrated or possibly discontinued.
    Note: This statement doesn’t imply that supervised studies are needed routinely following unattended studies. This statement means a re-evaluation based on a substantial change in symptoms or in the clinical situation.
  • To assess efficacy of surgery (including adenotonsillectomy or upper airway) or oral appliances/devices

Children (younger than 18 years old)

Inclusions:

  • Initial PSG is negative and a clinical suspicion of OSA remains.
  • Initial study was inadequate, equivocal or non-diagnostic and the child’s parents or caregiver report that the breathing patterns observed at home were different from those during testing.
  • A patient with established OSA continues to exhibit persistent snoring or other symptoms of sleep disordered breathing despite PAP adherence as defined by Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services criteria (use of PAP for at least four hours per night on 70% of nights during a consecutive 30-day period).
  • The patient has undergone adenotonsillectomy more than eight weeks previously for management of established OSA.
  • To reevaluate the diagnosis of OSA and need for continued PAP if there is significant weight loss (defined as 10% of body weight) since the most recent sleep study.
  • To initiate or titrate CPAP or BPAP in a patient whose diagnostic study confirms that the patient is a candidate for positive airway pressure therapy and split-night study hasn’t been performed or was inadequate:
    • In pediatric individuals, an AHI greater than 1.5 is considered abnormal, and an AHI of 10 or more may be considered severe.
  • The initial sleep study has led to a diagnosis other than OSA and the repeat study is requested because of a change in clinical status or to assess efficacy after a change in therapy.

Multiple sleep latency testing, or MSLT

MSLT is considered experimental/investigational to diagnose obstructive sleep apnea except to exclude or confirm narcolepsy in the diagnostic workup of OSA syndrome.

Nonivasive pulse oximetry

The effectiveness of noninvasive pulse oximetry as a sole test (as an alternative to polysomnography or as a cardiorespiratory study for diagnosing sleep related breathing disorders) is considered experimental. Its effectiveness hasn’t been established.

Condition codes 35 and 92

Basic benefit and medical policy

Condition codes 35 and 92

The National Uniform Billing Committee added condition codes 35 and 92, effective Jan. 1, 2024.

G2025

Basic benefit and medical policy

Procedure code G2025

Procedure code G2025 is payable when billed with diagnosis class 6 – nervous mental. This diagnosis class is only payable beginning Jan. 27, 2020, through Feb. 1, 2024.

J0172

Basic benefit and medical policy

Aduhelm (aducanumab-avwa)

Effective Aug. 30, 2023, the FDA has updated the indications for the experimental drug Aduhelm (aducanumab-avwa). The following usage statement is no longer indicated in the drug’s description:   

  • There are no safety or effectiveness data on initiating treatment at earlier or later stages of the disease than were studied.

J1930

Basic benefit and medical policy

Somatuline (lanreotide)

Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan has approved payment for the off-label use of Somatuline (lanreotide) in the treatment of malignant neoplasm of the adrenal gland.

URMBT is excluded from this benefit.

J3490
J3590

Basic benefit and medical policy

Balfaxar (prothrombin complex concentrate, human-lans)

Balfaxar (prothrombin complex concentrate, human-lans) is considered established when criteria are met, effective July 26, 2023.

Balfaxar (prothrombin complex concentrate, human-lans) is a blood coagulation factor replacement product indicated for the urgent reversal of acquired coagulation factor deficiency induced by vitamin K antagonist (VKA, e.g., warfarin) therapy in adult patients with need for an urgent surgery/invasive procedure.

Dosage and administration:

For intravenous use after reconstitution only.

  • Balfaxar (prothrombin complex concentrate, human-lans) dosing should be individualized based on the patient’s baseline International Normalized Ratio, or INR, value and body weight.
  • Administer vitamin K concurrently to patients receiving Balfaxar (prothrombin complex concentrate, human-lans) to maintain factor levels once the effects of Balfaxar (prothrombin complex concentrate, human-lans) have diminished.
  • The safety and effectiveness of repeat dosing haven’t been established and it isn’t recommended.
  • Administer reconstituted Balfaxar (prothrombin complex concentrate, human-lans) at a rate of 0.12 mL/kg/min (~3 units/kg/min) up to a maximum rate of 8.4 mL/min (~210 units/min).
    • Pre-Treatment INR  2-<4
      Dose of Balfaxar (units of Factor IX)/kg body weight: 25
      Maximum dose (units of Factor IX): Not to exceed 2,500
    • Pre-Treatment INR  4-6
      Dose of Balfaxar (units of Factor IX)/kg body weight: 35
      Maximum dose (units of Factor IX): Not to exceed 3,500
    • Pre-Treatment INR  > 6
      Dose of Balfaxar (units of Factor IX)/kg body weight: 50
      Maximum dose (units of Factor IX): Not to exceed 5,000

Dosage forms and strengths:

Balfaxar (prothrombin complex concentrate, human-lans) is available as a white to ice-blue lyophilized powder for reconstitution for intravenous use in a single-dose vial, provided in a nominal strength of 500 Factor IX units in 20 mL reconstitution volume and 1,000 Factor IX units in 40 mL reconstitution volume per vial. Balfaxar (prothrombin complex concentrate, human-lans) contains the coagulation factors II, VII, IX and X and antithrombotic Proteins C and S.

Balfaxar (prothrombin complex concentrate, human-lans) isn’t a benefit for URMBT.

J3490
J3590

Basic benefit and medical policy

Eylea HD (aflibercept)

Effective Aug. 18, 2023, Eylea HD (aflibercept) is covered for the following FDA-approved indications:

Eylea HD (aflibercept) is a vascular endothelial growth factor, or VEGF, inhibitor indicated for the treatment of patients with:

  • Neovascular (wet) age-related macular degeneration, or nAMD
  • Diabetic macular edema, or DME
  • Diabetic retinopathy, or DR

Dosage and administration:

  • Neovascular (wet) age-related macular degeneration, or nAMD: The recommended dose for Eylea HD (aflibercept) is 8 mg (0.07 mL of 114.3 mg/mL solution) administered by intravitreal injection every four weeks (approximately every 28 days +/- seven days) for the first three doses, followed by 8 mg (0.07 mL of 114.3 mg/mL solution) via intravitreal injection once every eight to 16 weeks, +/- one week.
  • Diabetic macular edema, or DME: The recommended dose for Eylea HD (aflibercept) is 8 mg (0.07 mL of 114.3 mg/mL solution) administered by intravitreal injection every four weeks (approximately every 28 days +/- seven days) for the first three doses, followed by 8 mg (0.07 mL of 114.3 mg/mL solution) via intravitreal injection once every eight to 16 weeks, +/- one week.
  • Diabetic retinopathy, or DR: The recommended dose for Eylea HD (aflibercept) is 8 mg (0.07 mL of 114.3 mg/mL solution) administered by intravitreal injection every four weeks (approximately every 28 days +/- seven days) for the first three doses, followed by 8 mg (0.07 mL of 114.3 mg/mL solution) via intravitreal injection once every eight to 12 weeks, +/- one week.

Dosage forms and strengths:

Injection: 8 mg (0.07 mL of 114.3 mg/mL solution) in a single-dose vial.

Eylea HD (aflibercept) isn’t a benefit for URMBT.

J3490
J3590

Basic benefit and medical policy

Hepzato Kit (melphalan)

Effective Aug. 14, 2023, Hepzato Kit (melphalan) is covered for the following FDA-approved indications:

Hepzato Kit (melphalan) is an alkylating drug indicated as a liver-directed treatment for adult patients with uveal melanoma with unresectable hepatic metastases affecting less than 50% of the liver and no extrahepatic disease, or extrahepatic disease limited to the bone, lymph nodes, subcutaneous tissues or lung that is amenable to resection or radiation.

Dosage and administration:

Hepzato (melphalan), a component of the Hepzato Kit (melphalan), is administered by intraarterial infusion into the hepatic artery. The recommended dose is 3 mg/kg based on ideal body weight, with a maximum absolute dose of 220 mg during a single Hepzato Kit (melphalan) treatment. The drug is infused over 30 minutes followed by a 30-minute washout period. Treatments should be administered every six to eight weeks but can be delayed until recovery from toxicities and as per clinical judgment.

Dosage forms and strengths:

For injection: Hepzato Kit (melphalan) includes 50 mg freeze-dried (lyophilized) melphalan powder per vial in five single-dose vials, intended for reconstitution with the supplied diluents.

Hepzato Kit (melphalan) isn’t a benefit for URMBT.

J3490
J3590

Basic benefit and medical policy

Pombiliti (cipaglucosidase alfa-atga)

Pombiliti (cipaglucosidase alfa-atga) is considered established, effective Sept. 28, 2023. 

Pombiliti is a hydrolytic lysosomal glycogen-specific enzyme indicated, in combination with Opfolda, an enzyme stabilizer, for the treatment of adult patients with late-onset Pompe disease (lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase [GAA] deficiency) weighing ≥40 kg and who aren’t improving on their current enzyme replacement therapy, or ERT. 

Dosage and administration:

  • Verify pregnancy status in females of reproductive potential before initiating treatment. 
  • Administer Pombiliti in combination with Opfolda. 
  • Consider administering antihistamines, antipyretics or corticosteroids before Pombiliti administration.
  • Recommended Pombiliti dosage is 20 mg/kg (of actual body weight) administered every other week as an intravenous infusion over approximately four hours.
  • Start Pombiliti in combination with Opfolda two weeks after the last ERT dose.
  • Initiate the Pombiliti infusion approximately one hour after oral administration of Opfolda. If the Pombiliti infusion can’t be started within three hours of oral administration of Opfolda, reschedule Pombiliti in combination with Opfolda at least 24 hours after Opfolda was last taken. If Pombiliti in combination with Opfolda are both missed, re-start treatment as soon as possible.
  • Must be reconstituted and diluted before use.

Dosage forms and strengths:

For injection: 105 mg of cipaglucosidase alfa-atga as a lyophilized powder in a single-dose vial for reconstitution.

This drug isn’t a benefit for URMBT.

J9271

Basic benefit and medical policy

Keytruda (pembrolizumab)

Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan has approved payment for the off-label use of Keytruda (pembrolizumab) for the treatment of malignant  neoplasm of the pancreas.

URMBT groups are excluded from this change.

J9358

Basic benefit and medical policy

Enhertu (fam-trastuzumab deruxtecan-nxki)

Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan has approved payment for the off-label use of Enhertu (fam-trastuzumab deruxtecan-nxki) for the
treatment of malignant neoplasm of the parotid gland.

URMBT groups are excluded from this change.

L8600, C1789, S2066-S2068, 11920-11922, 19301-19303, 19305-19307, 19316, 19318, 19325, 19328, 19330, 19340, 19342, 19350, 19355, 19357, 19361, 19364, 19367-19371, 19380, 19396

Basic benefit and medical policy

Reconstructive breast surgery of breast implants

The safety and effectiveness of breast implant and breast reconstruction procedures have been established. Insertion, removal and reinsertion of silicone gel or saline-filled breast implants are established procedures for breast reconstruction and implant surgery when specific clinical criteria are met.

The inclusionary criteria has been updated, effective March 1, 2024.

Inclusionary and exclusionary guidelines:

Breast reconstruction

Inclusions:

Breast reconstruction on the affected breast or contralateral breast to achieve symmetry for any of the conditions listed below:

  • Congenital defects, such as breast agenesis
  • Mastectomy (including radical, modified radical, subcutaneous, simple and partial) due to current diagnosis of breast cancer
  • Mastectomy secondary to family or personal history of cancer of the breast
  • Accidental injury or trauma to the breast or breasts
  • Capsular contracture
    • Baker Class III contracture (only if covered for reconstructive purposes)
    • Baker Class IV contracture
  • After removal of an implant that meets both of the following:
    • Meets the “Implant removal” criteria below
    • When original implant was placed for reconstructive purposes

Exclusions:

All other conditions.

Implant removal

Inclusions:

Documentation of one of the following:

  • Baker Class III contractures (only if the initial implant was for reconstructive purposes)
  • Baker Class IV contracture
  • Recurrent infection
  • Extrusion
  • Silicone implant rupture
  • Surgery or radiation therapy for a new diagnosis of breast cancer
  • Breast implant-associated anaplastic large cell lymphoma, or BIA-ALCL
  • Suspected BIA-ALCL (symptoms of pain, swelling, redness or lump in the area of the implant; seroma; asymmetry of the breast). Bilateral removal is covered if requested.
  • B-cell lymphoma associated with the breast implant capsule
  • Textured-surface breast implant, when the surgeon determines it’s in the best interest of the patient.
  • Implants or tissue expanders that have been withdrawn from the market at the request of the FDA (i.e., Allergan BIOCELL®)

Exclusions:

The following indications for removal of breast implant are considered not medically necessary:

  • Patient anxiety
  • Pain not related to contractures or rupture
  • Baker Class III contractures in patients with implants for cosmetic purposes
  • Removal of a ruptured saline breast implant or implants when the original insertion was for a cosmetic purpose
  • Systemic symptoms, attributed to connective tissue diseases, autoimmune diseases, etc.
EXPERIMENTAL PROCEDURES

0243U, 0247U, 0390U

Basic benefit and medical policy

Serum biomarkers to predict adverse obstetric outcomes

The use of maternal serum biomarker tests with or without additional algorithmic analysis for prediction of preeclampsia is considered experimental. The evidence is insufficient to determine that the technology results in an improvement in the net health outcome.

The use of maternal serum biomarker tests with or without additional algorithmic analysis for prediction of spontaneous preterm birth is considered experimental. The evidence is insufficient to determine that the technology results in an improvement in the net health outcome. This policy is effective March 1, 2024. 

64555

Basic benefit and medical policy

CPT code *64555

As communicated in the provider alert dated Nov. 1, 2023, Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network will consider CPT code *64555 an experimental/non-covered service, effective Feb. 1, 2024.

After undergoing several changes to nomenclature since its creation in 1993, the code now represents the experimental services referenced in the Peripheral Subcutaneous Field Stimulation and Peripheral Nerve Stimulation medical policy.

If you have provided this service to our members, you will be required to notify your patients that it is no longer covered. If they still want the service, they’ll need to sign an advance notice of member responsibility. The member will be responsible for full payment.

90589

Basic benefit and medical policy

Chikungunya virus vaccine

The Chikungunya virus vaccine is experimental. Although it has been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention’s Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices hasn’t yet reviewed or published any recommendations regarding the vaccine. This is effective March 1, 2024.

Inclusions and exclusions:

Not applicable
GROUP BENEFIT CHANGES

Holland Hospital 

Holland Hospital, group number 71870, is joining Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan, effective April 1, 2024.

Group number: 71870
Alpha prefix: A4F
Platform: NASCO

Plans offered:
PPO with prescription drugs
High deductible health plan with prescription drugs

Note: This is a triple-tier product with tier 1 services being provided by Holland Hospital, Holland PHO and Lakeshore Area Radiation Oncology Center, or LAROC. Tier 2 services are provided by health care providers within our PPO network and tier 3 services are considered out of network.

None of the information included in this billing chart is intended to be legal advice and, as such, it remains the provider’s responsibility to ensure that all coding and documentation are done in accordance with all applicable state and federal laws and regulations.

Professional

Starting March 1, we’ll require a prior authorization for some continuous glucose monitor products

What you need to know

  • We’re requiring prior authorization for some continuous glucose monitor products beginning March 1, 2024.
  • Coverage requirements outlined in this article must be met.
  • For members who are new to continuous glucose monitor products, criteria are effective March 1.
  • For members who have used continuous glucose monitor products before March 1, criteria are effective May 1, 2024.
  • We may deny coverage if providers don’t request prior authorization.

Beginning March 1, 2024, providers will need to submit a prior authorization for the products listed below to continue coverage for Blue Cross and BCN commercial members. Medicare members are excluded from this change.


Continuous glucose monitor products

Coverage requirement, effective March 1**

FreeStyle Libre 14 Day Reader

  1. Member requires insulin
  2. Or

  3. Member has a diagnosis of diabetes and history of problematic hypoglycemia with at least one of the following:
    1. Recurrent (more than one) level 2 hypoglycemia events (glucose < 54 mg/dL) that persist despite multiple (more than one) attempts to adjust medication(s) and/or modify the diabetes treatment plan
    2. A history of one level 3 hypoglycemia event (glucose < 54 mg/dL) characterized by altered mental and/or physical state requiring third-party assistance for treatment of hypoglycemia

    Or

  4. Member has a diagnosis of diabetes and is currently pregnant and experiencing post-prandial (after mealtime) hyperglycemia

FreeStyle Libre 14 Day Sensor

FreeStyle Libre 2 Reader

FreeStyle Libre 2 Sensor

FreeStyle Libre 3 Sensor

FreeStyle Libre Reader

Dexcom G6 Receiver

Dexcom G6 Sensor

Dexcom G6 Transmitter

Dexcom G7 Receiver

Dexcom G7 Sensor

**Coverage requirements for continuous glucose monitor products that are billed as durable medical equipment through the member’s commercial medical benefit are the same as the criteria in the table above.

Action needed

  • Talk to your patients about any concerns they may have.
  • Request a prior authorization electronically. If the prescription is not authorized in advance, we may not pay for it.

For more information on how to submit an authorization electronically

  1. Go to ereferrals.bcbsm.com.
  2. Select Blue Cross for PPO members or BCN for HMO members.
  3. Click Pharmacy Benefit Drugs on the left.
  4. Request a prior authorization to show that the criteria in the table above are met.

For a complete list of covered drugs and coverage requirements, go to bcbsm.com/druglists          


We’re changing requirements for some medical benefit drugs for Medicare Advantage members

What you need to know

  • We’re adding prior authorization requirements for Adzynma and Wainua™.
  • We’re changing step therapy requirements for Soliris®, Ultomiris® and Zilbrysq®.

We’re making changes to prior authorization and step therapy requirements for some drugs covered under medical benefits for Medicare Plus Blue℠ and BCN Advantage℠ members.

Prior authorization will be required for two more drugs starting March 1

For dates of service on or after March 1, 2024, the following drugs will require prior authorization:

  • Adzynma (ADAMTS13, recombinant-krhn), HCPCS code J3590
  • Wainua™ (eplontersen), HCPCS code J3490

Submit prior authorization requests through the NovoLogix® online tool.

Step therapy requirements will change for some drugs

Providers who request prior authorization for Soliris®, Ultomiris® or Zilbrysq® for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis will need to show that the member has first tried and failed other drugs, as follows.

Drug(s)

New requirement

Effective date

Zilbrysq (zilucoplan), HCPCS code J3490

Prior authorization

For dates of service on or after Feb. 12, 2024(1)

Try and fail one of these drugs:

  • Vyvgart® (efgartigimod), HCPCS code J9332
  • Vyvgart® Hytrulo (efgartigimod alfa and hyaluronidase-qvfc), HCPCS code J9334

For dates of service on or after Feb. 12, 2024(2)

Do both of these things, in no specific order:

  • Try and fail one of these drugs:
  • Vyvgart (efgartigimod), HCPCS code J9332
  • Vyvgart Hytrulo (efgartigimod alfa and hyaluronidase-qvfc), HCPCS code J9334
  • Try and fail Rystiggo® (rozanolixizumab-noli), HCPCS code J9333

For dates of service on or after April 1, 2024

Soliris (eculizumab), J1300
and
Ultomiris (ravulizumab-cwvz), J1303

Try and fail one of these drugs:

  • Vyvgart (efgartigimod), HCPCS code J9332
  • Vyvgart Hytrulo (efgartigimod alfa and hyaluronidase-qvfc), HCPCS code J9334

For dates of service on or after March 1, 2024(3)  

Do both of these things, in no specific order:

  • Try and fail one of these drugs:
  • Vyvgart (efgartigimod), HCPCS code J9332
  • Vyvgart Hytrulo (efgartigimod alfa and hyaluronidase-qvfc), HCPCS code J9334
  • Try and fail Rystiggo (rozanolixizumab-noli), HCPCS code J9333

For dates of service on or after April 1, 2024

(1)Refer to the Nov. 13, 2023, provider alert.
(2)Refer to the Medical Drug and Step Therapy Prior Authorization List for Medicare Plus Blue and BCN Advantage members
(3)Refer to the Dec. 4, 2023, provider alert.

Soliris and Ultomiris already require prior authorization.

When prior authorization is required

These drugs will require prior authorization when they are administered by a health care provider in sites of care such as outpatient facilities or physician offices and are billed in one of the following ways:

  • Electronically through an 837P transaction or on a professional CMS-1500 claim form
  • Electronically through an 837I transaction or using the UB04 claim form for a hospital outpatient type of bill 013x

Submit prior authorization requests through the NovoLogix tool

To access NovoLogix, log in to our provider portal (availity.com),** click Payer Spaces in the menu bar and then click the BCBSM and BCN logo. You’ll find links to the NovoLogix tools on the Applications tab. 

If you need to request access to Availity®, follow the instructions on the Register for web tools webpage at bcbsm.com/providers.

List of requirements

For a list of requirements related to drugs covered under the medical benefit, see the Medical Drug and Step Therapy Prior Authorization List for Medicare Plus Blue and BCN Advantage members.

 

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network don't own or control this website.

Availity is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.


Blue Cross payment policy won’t allow separate and distinct modifiers to bypass bundling claim edits

In support of correct coding and payment accuracy, the Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan payment policy will no longer allow separate and distinct modifiers to bypass bundling claim edits for select services below:

Procedure codes *93798 and *93797 are considered mutually exclusive and should not be billed together. Separate and distinct modifiers will no longer override this edit.

*93798 – Physician or other qualified health care professional services for outpatient cardiac rehabilitation; with continuous ECG monitoring (per session)

*93797 – Physician or other qualified health care professional services for outpatient cardiac rehabilitation; without continuous ECG monitoring (per session)

Procedure codes *97975 and *93976 are considered mutually exclusive and should not be billed together. Separate and distinct modifiers will no longer override this edit.

*97975 – Duplex scan of arterial inflow and venous outflow of abdominal, pelvic, scrotal contents and/or retroperitoneal organs; complete study

*93976 – Duplex scan of arterial inflow and venous outflow of abdominal, pelvic, scrotal contents and/or retroperitoneal organs; limited study

Procedure code *76942 is considered incidental when billed with transrectal ultrasound (76872) and prostate biopsy procedure (*55700). Separate and distinct modifiers will no longer override this edit.

*76942 – Ultrasonic guidance for needle placement (for example, biopsy, aspiration, injection or localization device), imaging supervision and interpretation

*76872 – Ultrasound, transrectal

*55700 – Biopsy, prostate; needle or punch, single or multiple, any approach


Follow these guidelines when billing ABA services, ASD interventions by multiple providers on the same date of service

Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network have received claims for autism evaluation and treatment services in which more than one provider is billing for services that occurred at the same time for a single member. 

In general, concurrent billing of services by two or more providers for a member is not eligible for reimbursement. However, this is sometimes appropriate when the member has a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder, or ASD.

Here are some guidelines for billing for ASD services by multiple providers: 

  • Providers can bill concurrently for the following complementary procedure codes, with limitations on duration and frequency:
    • *97153 — applied behavior analysis  
    • *97155 — protocol modification (supervision)
  • Providers cannot bill concurrently for services that occur at the same time but aren’t complementary. For example, don’t bill for applied behavior analysis, or ABA, treatment by a behavior technician and for services by a physical, occupational or speech therapist for the same member between 2 and 3 p.m. on the same date.

Here are some additional guidelines:

  • Multiple providers can bill for services for the same member provided on the same date but at different times. For example, billing for these services is acceptable:
    • Four units of ABA services provided between 1 and 2 p.m.
    • Speech therapy services provided between 2 and 3 p.m.
    • Occupational therapy services provided between 3 and 4 p.m.
  • The medical necessity of each service must be clearly documented in the member’s medical record. The record must show the interaction among the services and the beneficial effects for the member.

We encourage providers to use their best clinical judgment. Autism-related interventions are difficult and tiring for the member. Take into consideration the fatigue factor, the attention span and the age of the member and the member’s ability to benefit from a specific intervention in light of emotional distress and frustration. For example, it may be hard to justify a speech therapy intervention when the member has already had eight hours of ABA that day. In that situation, the member may not benefit from the speech therapy due to fatigue.

Providers should consider all these factors when determining the medical necessity of the interventions. The medical record must show that the member can benefit from each intervention — rather than simply being present for the session.


Webinars for physicians and coders focus on risk adjustment, coding

Beginning in April 2024, we’ll offer webinars about documentation and coding of common challenging diagnoses. These live, lunchtime educational sessions will also include an opportunity for you to ask questions.

Following is our current schedule and the tentative topics for the sessions. All sessions start at noon Eastern time and generally last for 30 minutes. Register for the session that best works with your schedule on the provider training website.

Session date

Topic

April 17

HCC and risk adjustment updates

May 22

Medical record documentation and MEAT

June 26

Orthopedic and sports medicine coding tips

July 10

Diabetes and weight management coding tips

Aug. 21

Cardiovascular disease and vascular surgery coding tips

Sept. 18

Neurosurgery, dementia and cognitive impairment coding tips

Oct. 2

ICD-10-CM updates

Nov. 13

Oncology coding tips

Dec. 11

CPT updates for 2025

Provider training website access

Provider portal users with an Availity® Essentials account can access the provider training website by logging in to availity.com,** clicking on Payer Space in the top menu bar and then clicking on the BCBSM and BCN logo. Then click on the Applications tab, scroll down to the Provider Training Site tile and click on it.

You can also directly access the training website if you don’t have a provider portal account through this link: Provider training website.

After logging in to the provider training website, look in Event Calendar to sign up for your desired session. You can also quickly search for all the sessions with the keyword “lunchtime” and then look under the results for Events.

Questions?

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network don’t own or control this website.


Continuity of care arrangements are expanded to Medicare Advantage members

Starting Jan. 1, 2024, Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network expanded continuity of care arrangements to accommodate our Medicare Advantage (Medicare Plus Blue℠ and BCN Advantage℠) members.

In the past, these arrangements applied primarily to members getting care from out-of-network providers. Now, they also apply to members who are new to our Medicare Plus Blue and BCN Advantage plans or who are moving between those plans.

How continuity of care works

In line with continuity of care guidelines set by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Blue Cross and BCN will allow members to continue with an existing course of treatment from their current provider within the first 90 calendar days after enrollment. However, first:

  • Blue Cross and BCN must confirm that the member is in an active course of treatment when they join one of our Medicare Advantage plans or when they move from a Medicare Plus Blue plan to a BCN Advantage plan or vice versa.
  • Providers must document the member’s course of treatment or treatment plan in the member’s medical record. The documentation must show the services planned for the member.
  • Providers who submit a request for prior authorization should include a note that lets us know the member is undergoing an active course of treatment.
  • Blue Cross and BCN will ask for the member’s treatment plan to use in reviewing the prior authorization request.

What is a course of treatment?

According to CMS, a course of treatment is a prescribed order or ordered course of treatment for a specific individual with a specific condition outlined and decided upon ahead of time with the patient and provider. 
A course of treatment may be part of a treatment plan but is not required. An active course of treatment means a course of treatment in which a patient is actively seeing the provider and following the course of treatment.


Requirements and codes changed for some medical benefit drugs

Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network encourage proper utilization of high-cost medications that are covered under the medical benefit. As part of this effort, we maintain comprehensive lists of requirements for our members. 

In October, November and December of 2023, we added requirements for some medical benefit drugs. These requirements went into effect on various dates. In addition, some drugs were assigned new HCPCS codes.

Changes in requirements

For Blue Cross commercial and BCN commercial members, we added prior authorization requirements for the following drugs:

HCPCS code

Brand name

Generic name

J3590**

Casgevy™  

Exagamglogene autotemcel

J3590**

Cosentyx® IV

Secukinumab

J3590**

Daxxify®

Daxibotulinum toxina-lanm

J3590**

Entyvio® SQ

Vedolizumab

J3590**

Lyfgenia™

Lovo-cel

J3590**

Omvoh™ IV and SC

Mirikizumab-mrkz

J3590**

Pombiliti™  

Cipaglucosidase alfa-atga

J3590**

Rethymic®

Allogeneic processed thymus tissue–agdc

J3590**

Rivfloza™

Nedosiran - SQ injection

J3590**

Tofidence™

Tocilizumab-bavi - IV injection

J3590**

Wezlana™

Ustekinumab-auub

For Medicare Plus Blue℠ and BCN Advantage℠ members, we added prior authorization requirements for the following drugs:

HCPCS code

Brand name

Generic name

For dates of service on or after

J1745

Generic (non-biosimilar)

Infliximab

Oct. 15, 2023

J3490

Izervay™

Avacincaptad pegol

Oct. 15, 2023

J3490

Eylea® HD

Aflibercept

Oct. 15, 2023

J3590

Lantidra™

Donislecel-jujn

Oct. 15, 2023

J3590

Veopoz™

Pozelimab-bbfg

Oct. 15, 2023

J3490

Daxxify®

DaxibotulinumtoxinA-lanm

Dec. 18, 2023

Code changes

The table below shows HCPCS code changes that were effective Oct. 1, 2023 (unless otherwise noted), for the medical benefit drugs we manage.

New HCPCS code

Brand name

Generic name

C9157

Qalsody®

Tofersen

J0801

Acthar® Gel

Corticotropin

J0802

Purified Cortropin® Gel

Corticotropin

J2781

Syfovre®

Pegcetacoplan injection

Drug lists

For additional details, see the following drug lists:

These lists are also available on the ereferrals.bcbsm.com website at:

Additional information about these requirements

We communicated these changes previously through provider alerts, which contain additional details.
You can view the provider alerts at ereferrals.bcbsm.com and on our Provider Resources site, which is accessible through our provider portal, availity.com.***

Additional information for Blue Cross commercial groups

For Blue Cross commercial groups, authorization requirements apply only to groups that participate in the standard commercial Medical Drug Prior Authorization Program for drugs administered under the medical benefit. To determine whether a group participates in the prior authorization program, see the Specialty Pharmacy Prior Authorization Master Opt-in/out Group list. A link to this list is also available on the Blue Cross Medical Benefit Drugs page of the ereferrals.bcbsm.com website.

Blue Cross and Blue Shield Federal Employee Program® members and UAW Retiree Medical Benefits Trust (non-Medicare) members don't participate in the standard prior authorization program.

Reminder: An authorization approval isn’t a guarantee of payment. Health care providers need to verify eligibility and benefits for members.

 

**May be assigned a unique code in the future.

***Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan doesn’t own or control this website.

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.


Medicare Plus Blue clinical editing portal available through Availity

To improve provider experience, Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan is making a clinical editing portal available to health care providers that provides additional details when a when a Medicare Plus Blue℠ claim goes through clinical editing. Health care providers can use the portal to enter a new hypothetical claim or look up an existing claim for Medicare Plus Blue members whose member ID begins with X3L. This functionality is expected to expand to more members in the future.

Claims entered in the portal aren’t submitted into the claims system. The portal provides a way to test different claim scenarios and identify potential edits without submitting a live claim. When looking up an existing claim, unique identifying information is required, such as provider ID and either a claim ID or a patient ID and date of service).

To access the clinical editing portal, follow these steps:

  1. Log in to the Availity website at availity.com.**
  2. Click on Payer Spaces on the Availity menu bar.
  3. Click on the Blue Cross and BCN logo.
  4. Click on CES Portal on the Applications tab.

When using the portal, providers must input claims data, whether hypothetical or existing. Once the claim has been analyzed, the line-by-line edits are returned and displayed in the user interface.

This is a simulation tool that doesn’t guarantee approval or reimbursement of a claim. Other edits may apply when a claim is submitted and processed.

A user guide is available on the provider training site and is also accessible from the provider portal. Go to the Applications tab of the BCBSM/BCN Payer Space on Availity and click on Provider Training Site. Once you are on the site, use the keywords “CES” to search for the user guide. If you need assistance navigating the provider training site, email ProviderTraining@bcbsm.com.

 

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan doesn’t own or control this website.


Omvoh to have a site-of-care requirement for most commercial members starting in May

We’re adding a site-of-care requirement for Omvoh™ SC and IV (mirikizumab-mrkz), HCPCS code J3590, which is covered under the medical benefit, for dates of service on or after May 1, 2024. The new requirement applies to Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network group and individual commercial members.

The NovoLogix® online tool will prompt you to select a site of care when you submit prior authorization requests for this drug. If the request meets clinical criteria for the drug and is for one of the following sites of care, it will be approved automatically:

  • Doctor’s or other health care provider’s office
  • Ambulatory infusion center
  • The member’s home, from a home infusion therapy provider

Additional information or documentation may be required for requests to administer Omvoh in an outpatient hospital setting.

This drug already requires prior authorization. Providers can submit prior authorization requests using NovoLogix. The new site-of-care requirement is in addition to the current prior authorization requirement.

Members who start courses of treatment with Omvoh before May 1, 2024, will be able to continue receiving the drug in their current location until their existing authorization expires. If those members then continue treatment under a new prior authorization, the site-of-care requirement outlined above will apply.

Some Blue Cross commercial groups aren’t subject to these requirements

For Blue Cross commercial groups, the prior authorization and site-of-care requirements apply only to groups that participate in the standard commercial Medical Drug Prior Authorization Program for drugs administered under members’ medical benefit. To determine whether a group participates in the prior authorization program, see the Specialty Pharmacy Prior Authorization Master Opt-in/out Group list.
Blue Cross and Blue Shield Federal Employee Program® members and UAW Retiree Medical Benefits Trust non-Medicare members don’t participate in the standard prior authorization program.

List of requirements

For a full list of requirements related to drugs covered under the medical benefit, see the Blue Cross and BCN utilization management medical drug list for Blue Cross commercial and BCN commercial members. We’ll update this list prior to the effective date.

You can access this list and other information about requesting prior authorization at ereferrals.bcbsm.com, at these locations:

Reminder: Prior authorization isn't a guarantee of payment. Health care practitioners need to verify eligibility and benefits for members.

 

NovoLogix is an independent company that provides an online prescription drug prior authorization tool for Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network.


Cabenuva to have requirements for most commercial members, starting May 1

For dates of service on or after May 1, 2024, we’re adding prior authorization and site-of-care requirements for most Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network group and individual commercial members for the following drug covered under the medical benefit:

  • Cabenuva (cabotegravir, rilpivirine), HCPCS code J0741

For members who start a new course of treatment on or after May 1, providers will need to submit a prior authorization request.

How to submit prior authorization requests

Submit prior authorization requests through the NovoLogix® online tool. The tool offers real-time status checks and immediate approvals for certain medications.

To access NovoLogix:

  1. Log in to our provider portal through Availity® at availity.com.**
  2. Click Payer Spaces in the menu bar, then click the BCBSM and BCN logo.
  3. Access the links to the NovoLogix tools in the Applications tab.

Note: If you need to request access to our provider portal, see the Register for web tools webpage on bcbsm.com.

The NovoLogix online tool will prompt you to select a site of care when you submit prior authorization requests for this drug. If the request meets clinical criteria for the drug and is for one of the following sites of care, it’ll be approved automatically:

  • Doctor or other health care provider’s office
  • Ambulatory infusion center
  • The member’s home, from a home infusion therapy provider

Additional information or documentation may be required for requests to administer Cabenuva in an outpatient hospital setting.

What about members who start a course of treatment before May 1?

For members who start a course of treatment with Cabenuva before May 1, 2024, providers won’t need to submit prior authorization requests for dates of service from May 1 through Nov. 1, 2024. We’ll automatically approve authorizations through Nov. 1 and these members can continue receiving the drug in the original site of care during that time.

For dates of service on or after Nov. 2, 2024, for these members, providers will need to submit prior authorization requests. These requests will be subject to the site-of-care requirement outlined above.

Some Blue Cross commercial groups aren’t subject to these requirements

For Blue Cross commercial groups, this prior authorization requirement applies only to groups that participate in the standard commercial Medical Drug Prior Authorization Program for drugs administered under the medical benefit. To determine whether a group participates in the prior authorization program, see the Specialty Pharmacy Prior Authorization Master Opt-in/out Group list.

Note: Blue Cross and Blue Shield Federal Employee Program® members and UAW Retiree Medical Benefits Trust (non-Medicare) members don’t participate in the standard prior authorization program.

List of requirements

For a full list of requirements related to drugs covered under the medical benefit, see the Blue Cross and BCN utilization management medical drug list for Blue Cross commercial and BCN commercial members. We’ll update this list prior to the effective date.

You can access these lists and other information about requesting prior authorization on the following pages of the ereferrals.bcbsm.com website:

Prior authorization isn’t a guarantee of payment. Health care practitioners need to verify eligibility and benefits for members.

 

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network don’t own or control this website.

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

NovoLogix is an independent company that provides an online prescription drug prior authorization tool for Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network.


Pemfexy to have step therapy requirements starting in April

Members must try and fail two other pemetrexed drugs before we’ll approve prior authorization requests for Pemfexy® (pemetrexed), HCPCS code J9304, for dates of service on or after April 26, 2024.

Members must try and fail two of the following drugs:

  • Alimta® (pemetrexed), HCPCS code J9305
  • Pemrydi® RTU (pemetrexed), HCPCS code J9324
  • Pemetrexed (generic, various brands), HCPCS codes J9294, J9296, J9297, J9314, J9322, J9323

These drugs are covered under the members’ medical benefits, not their pharmacy benefits.

All of the drugs listed above continue to require prior authorization through Carelon Medical Benefits Management, as specified in the pertinent drug lists, which are linked below. We’ll update these lists to reflect the new step therapy requirement prior to the effective date.

Prior authorization isn’t a guarantee of payment. Health care providers need to verify eligibility and benefits for members.

Members affected by this change

This new requirement applies to:

  • Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan commercial:
  • Blue Care Network commercial members
  • Medicare Plus Blue℠ members
  • BCN Advantage℠ members

More about the prior authorization requirements
For a full list of requirements related to drugs covered under the medical benefit, see the following lists:

Carelon Medical Benefits Management is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to manage prior authorizations for select services.


Blue Cross and BCN covers additional vaccines

To increase access to vaccines and decrease the risk of vaccine-preventable disease outbreaks, Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network added the following vaccine to our list of vaccines covered under the pharmacy benefit.

Vaccine

Common name and abbreviation

Effective date


Penbraya™


Meningococcal serogroups A, B, C, W, Y vaccine (MenACWY-TT/ MenB-FHbp)


Jan. 1, 2024

The following charts list vaccines that are covered under eligible members’ prescription drug plans. Most Blue Cross and BCN commercial (non-Medicare) members with prescription drug coverage are eligible. If a member meets the coverage criteria, the vaccine is covered with no out-of-pocket costs.

Vaccines that have an age requirement

Vaccine

Common name and abbreviation

Age Requirement

Gardasil 9®

Human papillomavirus vaccine (HPV)

9 to 45 years old

Influenza virus

Influenza vaccine (Flu)

Under 9: 2 vaccines per 180 days
9 and older: 1 vaccine per 180 days

Prevnar 13®

Pneumococcal 13 - valent conjugate vaccine

65 and older

Vaccines that have no age requirement

Vaccine

Common name and abbreviation

  • Dengvaxia®

Dengue vaccine (DEN4CYD)

  • Daptacel®
  • Infanrix®

Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP)

  • Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids

Diphtheria, tetanus vaccine (DT)

  • Kinrix®
  • Quadracel®

DTap and inactivated poliovirus vaccine (DTaP-IPV)

  • Pediarix®

DTaP, hepatitis B, and inactivated poliovirus vaccine (DTaP-HepB-IPV)

  • Vaxelis®

DTaP, inactivated poliovirus, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and hepatitis B vaccine (DTaP-IPV-Hib-HepB)

  • ActHIB®
  • Hiberix®
  • PedvaxHIB®



Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine (Hib)

  • Havrix®
  • Vaqta®

Hepatitis A (HepA)

  • Engerix-B®
  • Heplisav-B®
  • PreHevbrio™    
  • Recombivax HB®

Hepatitis B (HepB)

  • Twinrix®

Hepatitis A & B (HepA-HEPB)

  • M-M-R II®
  • Priorix®

Measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR)

  • ProQuad®

Measles, mumps, rubella and varicella vaccine (MMRV)

  • Menveo®

Meningococcal serogroups A, C, W, Y vaccine (MenACWY-CRM)

  • Menactra®

Meningococcal serogroups A, C, W, Y vaccine (MenACWY-D)

  • MenQuadfi®

Meningococcal serogroups A, C, W, Y vaccine (MenACWY-TT)

  • Penbraya™

Meningococcal serogroups A, B, C, W, Y vaccine (MenACWY-TT/ MenB-FHbp)

  • Bexsero®

Meningococcal serogroup B vaccine (MenB-4C)

  • Trumenba®

Meningococcal serogroup B vaccine (MenB-FHbp)

  • Vaxneuvance™

Pneumococcal 15-valent conjugate vaccine (PCV15)

  • Prevnar 20™

Pneumococcal 20-valent conjugate vaccine (PCV20)

  • Pneumovax 23®

Pneumococcal 23-valent polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23)

  • IPOL®

Poliovirus (IPV)

  • Arexvy™
  • Abrysvo™
  • Beyfortus™

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

  • Rotarix®

Rotavirus vaccine (RV1)

  • RotaTeq®

Rotavirus vaccine (RV5)

  • Tdvax®
  • Tenivac®

Tetanus and diphtheria vaccine (Td)

  • Adacel®
  • Boostrix®

Tetanus, diphtheria and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap).

  • Varivax®

Varicella vaccine (VAR) (chickenpox)

  • Shingrix®

Zoster vaccine (RZV) (Shingles)


Covid Vaccines

  • Pfizer COVID-19 Vaccine (2023-2024), 6 months to 4 years old
  • Pfizer COVID-19Vaccine (2023-2024), 5 to 11 years old
  • Comirnaty, Pfizer COVID-19 Vaccine (2023-2024)
  • Novavax, COVID-19 Vaccine (2023-2024)
  • Spikevax, Moderna COVID-19 Vaccine (2023 -2024)

If a member doesn’t meet the age requirement for a vaccine, Blue Cross and BCN won’t cover the vaccine under the prescription drug plan and the claim will reject.

Vaccines must be administered by certified, trained and qualified registered pharmacists.


Register now for 2024 virtual provider symposium sessions

This year’s virtual provider symposiums focusing on quality measures, documentation and coding guidelines will start in May. Registration is now open on the provider training website. Physicians, physician assistants, nurse practitioners, nurses and coders can receive continuing education credits for attending (see below for details).

Once you’re logged in to the provider training site, open the event calendar to sign up for any of the sessions listed below. You can also quickly search for all the sessions with the keyword “symposium” and then look under the results for Events.

All Star Performance-HEDIS®/Star Rating Measure Overview: For physicians and office staff responsible for closing gaps in care related to quality adult measures

Session

Date

Time

All Star Performance- HEDIS® /Star Rating Measure Overview

 May 9

 9 to 10 a.m.

All Star Performance- HEDIS® /Star Rating Measure Overview

 May 15

9 to 10 a.m.

All Star Performance- HEDIS® /Star Rating Measure Overview

 May 23

2 to 3 p.m.

All Star Performance- HEDIS® /Star Rating Measure Overview

 June 4

2 to 3 p.m.

Coding and Documentation Tips for 2024 and Beyond: For physicians, coders, billers and administrative staff

Session

Date

Time

Let’s Talk Coding: Coding and Documentation Tips for 2024 and Beyond

 May 7

 11 a.m. to 12 p.m.

Let’s Talk Coding: Coding and Documentation Tips for 2024 and Beyond

 May 16

 3 to 4 p.m.

Let’s Talk Coding: Coding and Documentation Tips for 2024 and Beyond

 May 21

 9 to 10 a.m.

Let’s Talk Coding: Coding and Documentation Tips for 2024 and Beyond

 June 6

11 a.m. to 12 p.m.

Provider training website access

Provider portal users with an Availity® Essentials account can access the provider training website by logging in to availity.com,** clicking on Payer Space in the top menu bar and then clicking on the BCBSM and BCN logo. Then click on the Applications tab, scroll down to the Provider Training Site tile and click on it.

You can also directly access the training website if you don’t have a provider portal account: Provider training website.

Accreditation

This activity has been planned and implemented in accordance with the accreditation requirements and policies of the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education (ACCME) through the joint providership of the Minnesota Medical Association and BCBS of Michigan. The Minnesota Medical Association (MMA) is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education to provide continuing medical education for physicians.

CMEs

The Minnesota Medical Association designates this internet live activity for a maximum of 2 AMA PRA Category 1 Credit(s)™. Physicians should claim only the credit commensurate with the extent of their participation in the activity.

Questions?

 

HEDIS® is a registered trademark of the National Committee for Quality Assurance.

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network don’t own or control this website.


Questionnaire changes in e-referral

On Jan. 28, 2024, we added, updated and deleted questionnaires in the e-referral system. We also added, updated and deleted the corresponding preview questionnaires from the Authorization criteria and preview questionnaires document on the ereferrals.bcbsm.com website.

As a reminder, we use our authorization criteria, our medical policies and your answers to the questionnaires in the e-referral system when making utilization management determinations on your prior authorization requests.

New questionnaires

The following questionnaires replaced the Vascular embolization or occlusion of hepatic tumors (TACE/RFA) questionnaire:

Questionnaire

Opens for

Updates

TACE and radioembolization of liver tumors trigger

  • Medicare Plus Blue℠
  • BCN commercial
  • BCN Advantage℠

Opens for procedure code *37243

Transcatheter arterial chemoembolization of hepatic tumors (TACE)

Opens for procedure codes *37242, *37243 and *75894

Radioembolization for tumors of the liver

Opens for procedure code *37243

Updated questionnaire

We updated the following questionnaire in the e-referral system:

Questionnaire

Opens for

Updates

Orthognathic surgery

  • Blue Care Network commercial
  • BCN Advantage

Updated a question

Deleted questionnaires

We deleted the following questionnaires from the e-referral system:

Questionnaire

Details

Computed tomography to detect coronary artery calcification

This questionnaire was deleted. It no longer opens for BCN commercial members.
Procedure code S8092 no longer requires prior authorization.

Vascular embolization or occlusion of hepatic tumors (TACE/RFA)

This questionnaire was deleted and replaced with other questionnaires, as discussed in the “New questionnaires” section earlier in this article.

Preview questionnaires

To find the preview questionnaires, see the document titled Authorization criteria and preview questionnaires.

You can access this document by going to ereferrals.bcbsm.com and doing the following:

  • For Medicare Plus Blue: Click on Blue Cross and then click on Prior Authorization. Scroll to the “Authorization information for Medicare Plus Blue members” section and click the Authorization criteria and preview questionnaires link.
  • For BCN: Click on BCN and then click on Prior Authorization and Plan Notification. Scroll to the “Authorization criteria and preview questionnaires for select services” section and then click the Authorization criteria and preview questionnaires link.

Authorization criteria and medical policies

The Authorization criteria and preview questionnaires document explains how to access the pertinent authorization criteria and medical policies.


Star measure tip sheets updated for 2024

We’ve updated our series of Star Measure Tips for 2024 and posted them on Availity® Essentials. These tip sheets have been developed to assist health care providers and their staff in their efforts to improve overall health care quality for their patients and prevent or control diseases and chronic conditions.

The new tip sheets are current as of this publication. However, when the National Committee for Quality Assurance, or NCQA, publishes final updates to the 2024 HEDIS® specifications, we may need to update the tip sheets again. As updated versions are produced, we’ll post the new ones and announce them in The Record.  

The Star Measure Tips highlight select measures in the Medicare Star Ratings program. Most of the measures featured in the tip sheets are HEDIS measures. HEDIS is one of the most widely used performance improvement tools in the U.S.

Accessing the tip sheets

The Star Measure Tip Sheets are housed on the Secure Provider Resources section of Availity. You can get there by following these steps:

  1. Log in to our provider portal at availity.com.**
  2. Click on Payer Spaces on the Availity menu bar.
  3. Click on the BCBSM and BCN logo.
  4. Click on Secure Provider Resources (Blue Cross and BCN) on the Member Care tab and choose Tip Sheets from the drop-down menu.
 

HEDIS®, which stands for Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set, is a registered trademark of the National Committee for Quality Assurance, or NCQA.

Availity is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan doesn’t own or control this website.


Here are some patient resources and HEDIS tip sheets on acute bronchitis and acute low back pain

This is part of an ongoing series of articles focusing on the tools and resources available to help FEP members manage their health.

The standard of care for patients with acute bronchitis or acute low back pain focuses on symptom management. Here are some health care provider and patient resources for conservative treatment for these conditions.

The Be Antibiotics Aware** campaign from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention offers resources to help providers educate patients on treating common viruses, such as acute bronchitis. Here are a couple of available resources:

The CDC developed a poster, A Commitment to Improving Antibiotic Use,** for providers to post in their exam rooms to show a commitment to reducing inappropriate use of antibiotics.

Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan’s Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set, or HEDIS®, tip sheet — Avoidance of Antibiotic Treatment for Acute Bronchitis/Bronchiolitis — provides helpful hints on avoidance of antibiotics and coding tips.

Choosing Wisely®**  recommends avoiding imaging for acute low back pain within the first six weeks of onset, unless red flags are present. The American College of Physicians’ flyer — What You Should Know About Low Back Pain** — lists the causes, symptoms and treatment of acute low back pain, including the avoidance of imaging, that you can share with patients.

Blue Cross also developed a HEDIS® tip sheet — Use of Imaging Studies for Low Back Pain — with information on measure compliance and helpful hints.

Accessing the tip sheets

The tip sheets are on the Secure Provider Resources section of Availity® Essentials. You can get there by following these steps:

  1. Log in to our provider portal at availity.com.**
  2. Click on Payer Spaces on the Availity menu bar.
  3. Click on the BCBSM and BCN logo.
  4. Click on Secure Provider Resources (Blue Cross and BCN) and then on the Member Care tab.
  5. Click on Clinical Quality and choose Tip Sheets from the drop-down menu.

For FEP benefit information, providers and members can call Customer Service at 1-800-482-3600 or visit fepblue.org.

 

HEDIS®, which stands for Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set, is a registered trademark of the National Committee for Quality Assurance, or NCQA.

Availity is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan doesn’t own or control this website.

Facility

New training course explains how to submit requests for appeals, peer-to-peer reviews in e-referral

We recently launched the Submitting requests for appeals and peer-to-peer reviews in e-referral course on the provider training website. This e-learning course about inpatient hospital admissions is for facility providers. The interactive course includes the simulation of an e-referral so you can quickly learn how to use e-referral’s questionnaire and case communication features to submit appeal and peer-to-peer review requests. Use the keywords “facility appeals” to search the provider training website. The course is also easily found in the Prior authorization category of the course catalog.

To access the training site from our provider portal, availity.com,** follow these steps:

  1. Log in to the provider portal.
  2. Click on Payer Spaces on the menu bar and then click on the BCBSM and BCN logo.
  3. Under Applications, click on the Provider Training Site tile.
  4. Click on Submit on the Select an Organization page.
  5. Existing users who used the same email address as their provider portal profile email will be directed to the training site. If you used a different email address, contact ProviderTraining@bcbsm.com to update your profile.

    Note: If you’re a new training site user, complete the one-time registration by entering your role and creating a password. This allows you to access the training site outside of the provider portal if needed.

You can also click here to directly access the training website if you don’t have a provider portal account.

If you need assistance navigating the provider training site, email ProviderTraining@bcbsm.com.

 

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan doesn’t own or control this website.


We’re no longer mailing some letters related to Medicare Advantage inpatient admissions

As of Jan. 17, 2024, we’re no longer using the U.S. mail service to send some letters related to acute medical or surgical inpatient admissions for our Medicare Advantage (Medicare Plus Blue℠ and BCN Advantage℠) members. The affected letters are those that indicate:

  • We’ve bundled admissions for a member for billing purposes.
  • We’ve denied an inpatient authorization request for a member.

We’re now sending these letters to facilities by eFax or through the Case Communication field in the e-referral system.

When it’s not possible to use eFax or the e-referral system, we’ll send these letters though the U.S. mail.

As a reminder, we stopped using the U.S. mail to send approval letters for inpatient authorization requests for these members in 2023.


Starting in March, we’ll no longer attach approval letters to Blue Cross commercial inpatient authorizations

Starting in March 2024, Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan will no longer attach formal approval letters to inpatient authorizations in the e-referral system for our Blue Cross commercial members. Approval notifications for these requests will still be available through the Case Communication field in the e-referral system, as they are today.

This change applies to requests for acute inpatient medical/surgical initial admissions and continued stays.

We’ve already made this change for acute inpatient medical/surgical requests for Blue Care Network commercial members.

For nonapproved acute inpatient medical/surgical requests, denial letters will continue to be attached in the Case Communication field.

To obtain a copy of your authorization, click the Printer-Friendly link in the upper right corner of the Inpatient Authorization Details screen. This converts the authorization to a PDF file, which you can save or print.

For information about using the e-referral system, see the Getting Started page of our ereferrals.bcbsm.com website.


Cotiviti to begin performing DRG cross-claim clinical reviews June 1, 2024.

Cotiviti, an independent company that provides claim reviews for Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan, will begin performing diagnosis-related group, or DRG, cross-claim clinical reviews on Medicare Plus Blue℠ inpatient facility claims beginning June 1, 2024. The reviews are based on the member’s episode of care and will not initially require you to provide medical records.

If you have claims selected for review without medical records, you’ll receive a letter advising you of the results of the review. If Cotiviti identifies an opportunity for a change, you’ll have the option to submit an appeal and provide the full medical records for consideration. Providers are able to request a first-level and a second-level appeal of the findings by the Physicians Review Organization.

Questions?

Contact Cotiviti Provider Relations at 770-379-2009 from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. Eastern time, Monday through Friday.

Cotiviti is an independent company that provides auditing support services for Blue Cross and BCN.


Submitting appeals and peer-to-peer review requests in e-referral for inpatient hospital admission denials

Action item

Sign up for a webinar about how to submit appeals and peer-to-peer review requests in our e-referral system for inpatient hospital admission denials.

Inpatient hospital providers can now submit requests for appeals and peer-to-peer reviews when an admission has been denied. This process is similar to the referral portal submission process already in place for initial authorization requests.

To submit an appeal or peer-to-peer request, go into the e-referral portal, locate the member and dates of service, and complete a short questionnaire for your specific request.

On March 13, 2024, at 1 p.m. Eastern time, we’re hosting a webinar – Submitting requests for appeals and peer-to-peer reviews in e-referral – where we’ll provide an overview of the process. We also have a mini course, which should take 15 minutes or less to complete, that shows you the step-by-step process for completing requests. You can view the mini course and sign up for the webinar on our Provider Training website.

Provider training website access

Provider portal users with an Availity® Essentials account can access the provider training website by logging in to availity.com,** clicking on Payer Space in the top menu bar and then clicking on the BCBSM and BCN logo. Then click on the Applications tab, scroll down to the Provider Training Site tile and click on it.

You can also directly access the training website if you do not have a provider portal account: Provider training website.

If you need assistance navigating the provider training site, locating courses or signing up for the webinar, email ProviderTraining@bcbsm.com.

 

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan doesn't own or control this website.


Starting March 1, we’ll require a prior authorization for some continuous glucose monitor products

What you need to know

  • We’re requiring prior authorization for some continuous glucose monitor products beginning March 1, 2024.
  • Coverage requirements outlined in this article must be met.
  • For members who are new to continuous glucose monitor products, criteria are effective March 1.
  • For members who have used continuous glucose monitor products before March 1, criteria are effective May 1, 2024.
  • We may deny coverage if providers don’t request prior authorization.

Beginning March 1, 2024, providers will need to submit a prior authorization for the products listed below to continue coverage for Blue Cross and BCN commercial members. Medicare members are excluded from this change.


Continuous glucose monitor products

Coverage requirement, effective March 1**

FreeStyle Libre 14 Day Reader

  1. Member requires insulin
  2. Or

  3. Member has a diagnosis of diabetes and history of problematic hypoglycemia with at least one of the following:
    1. Recurrent (more than one) level 2 hypoglycemia events (glucose < 54 mg/dL) that persist despite multiple (more than one) attempts to adjust medication(s) and/or modify the diabetes treatment plan
    2. A history of one level 3 hypoglycemia event (glucose < 54 mg/dL) characterized by altered mental and/or physical state requiring third-party assistance for treatment of hypoglycemia

    Or

  4. Member has a diagnosis of diabetes and is currently pregnant and experiencing post-prandial (after mealtime) hyperglycemia

FreeStyle Libre 14 Day Sensor

FreeStyle Libre 2 Reader

FreeStyle Libre 2 Sensor

FreeStyle Libre 3 Sensor

FreeStyle Libre Reader

Dexcom G6 Receiver

Dexcom G6 Sensor

Dexcom G6 Transmitter

Dexcom G7 Receiver

Dexcom G7 Sensor

**Coverage requirements for continuous glucose monitor products that are billed as durable medical equipment through the member’s commercial medical benefit are the same as the criteria in the table above.

Action needed

  • Talk to your patients about any concerns they may have.
  • Request a prior authorization electronically. If the prescription is not authorized in advance, we may not pay for it.

For more information on how to submit an authorization electronically

  1. Go to ereferrals.bcbsm.com.
  2. Select Blue Cross for PPO members or BCN for HMO members.
  3. Click Pharmacy Benefit Drugs on the left.
  4. Request a prior authorization to show that the criteria in the table above are met.

For a complete list of covered drugs and coverage requirements, go to bcbsm.com/druglists          


We’re changing requirements for some medical benefit drugs for Medicare Advantage members

What you need to know

  • We’re adding prior authorization requirements for Adzynma and Wainua™.
  • We’re changing step therapy requirements for Soliris®, Ultomiris® and Zilbrysq®.

We’re making changes to prior authorization and step therapy requirements for some drugs covered under medical benefits for Medicare Plus Blue℠ and BCN Advantage℠ members.

Prior authorization will be required for two more drugs starting March 1

For dates of service on or after March 1, 2024, the following drugs will require prior authorization:

  • Adzynma (ADAMTS13, recombinant-krhn), HCPCS code J3590
  • Wainua™ (eplontersen), HCPCS code J3490

Submit prior authorization requests through the NovoLogix® online tool.

Step therapy requirements will change for some drugs

Providers who request prior authorization for Soliris®, Ultomiris® or Zilbrysq® for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis will need to show that the member has first tried and failed other drugs, as follows.

Drug(s)

New requirement

Effective date

Zilbrysq (zilucoplan), HCPCS code J3490

Prior authorization

For dates of service on or after Feb. 12, 2024(1)

Try and fail one of these drugs:

  • Vyvgart® (efgartigimod), HCPCS code J9332
  • Vyvgart® Hytrulo (efgartigimod alfa and hyaluronidase-qvfc), HCPCS code J9334

For dates of service on or after Feb. 12, 2024(2)

Do both of these things, in no specific order:

  • Try and fail one of these drugs:
  • Vyvgart (efgartigimod), HCPCS code J9332
  • Vyvgart Hytrulo (efgartigimod alfa and hyaluronidase-qvfc), HCPCS code J9334
  • Try and fail Rystiggo® (rozanolixizumab-noli), HCPCS code J9333

For dates of service on or after April 1, 2024

Soliris (eculizumab), J1300
and
Ultomiris (ravulizumab-cwvz), J1303

Try and fail one of these drugs:

  • Vyvgart (efgartigimod), HCPCS code J9332
  • Vyvgart Hytrulo (efgartigimod alfa and hyaluronidase-qvfc), HCPCS code J9334

For dates of service on or after March 1, 2024(3)  

Do both of these things, in no specific order:

  • Try and fail one of these drugs:
  • Vyvgart (efgartigimod), HCPCS code J9332
  • Vyvgart Hytrulo (efgartigimod alfa and hyaluronidase-qvfc), HCPCS code J9334
  • Try and fail Rystiggo (rozanolixizumab-noli), HCPCS code J9333

For dates of service on or after April 1, 2024

(1)Refer to the Nov. 13, 2023, provider alert.
(2)Refer to the Medical Drug and Step Therapy Prior Authorization List for Medicare Plus Blue and BCN Advantage members
(3)Refer to the Dec. 4, 2023, provider alert.

Soliris and Ultomiris already require prior authorization.

When prior authorization is required

These drugs will require prior authorization when they are administered by a health care provider in sites of care such as outpatient facilities or physician offices and are billed in one of the following ways:

  • Electronically through an 837P transaction or on a professional CMS-1500 claim form
  • Electronically through an 837I transaction or using the UB04 claim form for a hospital outpatient type of bill 013x

Submit prior authorization requests through the NovoLogix tool

To access NovoLogix, log in to our provider portal (availity.com),** click Payer Spaces in the menu bar and then click the BCBSM and BCN logo. You’ll find links to the NovoLogix tools on the Applications tab. 

If you need to request access to Availity®, follow the instructions on the Register for web tools webpage at bcbsm.com/providers.

List of requirements

For a list of requirements related to drugs covered under the medical benefit, see the Medical Drug and Step Therapy Prior Authorization List for Medicare Plus Blue and BCN Advantage members.

 

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network don't own or control this website.

Availity is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.


Blue Cross payment policy won’t allow separate and distinct modifiers to bypass bundling claim edits

In support of correct coding and payment accuracy, the Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan payment policy will no longer allow separate and distinct modifiers to bypass bundling claim edits for select services below:

Procedure codes *93798 and *93797 are considered mutually exclusive and should not be billed together. Separate and distinct modifiers will no longer override this edit.

*93798 – Physician or other qualified health care professional services for outpatient cardiac rehabilitation; with continuous ECG monitoring (per session)

*93797 – Physician or other qualified health care professional services for outpatient cardiac rehabilitation; without continuous ECG monitoring (per session)

Procedure codes *97975 and *93976 are considered mutually exclusive and should not be billed together. Separate and distinct modifiers will no longer override this edit.

*97975 – Duplex scan of arterial inflow and venous outflow of abdominal, pelvic, scrotal contents and/or retroperitoneal organs; complete study

*93976 – Duplex scan of arterial inflow and venous outflow of abdominal, pelvic, scrotal contents and/or retroperitoneal organs; limited study

Procedure code *76942 is considered incidental when billed with transrectal ultrasound (76872) and prostate biopsy procedure (*55700). Separate and distinct modifiers will no longer override this edit.

*76942 – Ultrasonic guidance for needle placement (for example, biopsy, aspiration, injection or localization device), imaging supervision and interpretation

*76872 – Ultrasound, transrectal

*55700 – Biopsy, prostate; needle or punch, single or multiple, any approach


Follow these guidelines when billing ABA services, ASD interventions by multiple providers on the same date of service

Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network have received claims for autism evaluation and treatment services in which more than one provider is billing for services that occurred at the same time for a single member. 

In general, concurrent billing of services by two or more providers for a member is not eligible for reimbursement. However, this is sometimes appropriate when the member has a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder, or ASD.

Here are some guidelines for billing for ASD services by multiple providers: 

  • Providers can bill concurrently for the following complementary procedure codes, with limitations on duration and frequency:
    • *97153 — applied behavior analysis  
    • *97155 — protocol modification (supervision)
  • Providers cannot bill concurrently for services that occur at the same time but aren’t complementary. For example, don’t bill for applied behavior analysis, or ABA, treatment by a behavior technician and for services by a physical, occupational or speech therapist for the same member between 2 and 3 p.m. on the same date.

Here are some additional guidelines:

  • Multiple providers can bill for services for the same member provided on the same date but at different times. For example, billing for these services is acceptable:
    • Four units of ABA services provided between 1 and 2 p.m.
    • Speech therapy services provided between 2 and 3 p.m.
    • Occupational therapy services provided between 3 and 4 p.m.
  • The medical necessity of each service must be clearly documented in the member’s medical record. The record must show the interaction among the services and the beneficial effects for the member.

We encourage providers to use their best clinical judgment. Autism-related interventions are difficult and tiring for the member. Take into consideration the fatigue factor, the attention span and the age of the member and the member’s ability to benefit from a specific intervention in light of emotional distress and frustration. For example, it may be hard to justify a speech therapy intervention when the member has already had eight hours of ABA that day. In that situation, the member may not benefit from the speech therapy due to fatigue.

Providers should consider all these factors when determining the medical necessity of the interventions. The medical record must show that the member can benefit from each intervention — rather than simply being present for the session.


Webinars for physicians and coders focus on risk adjustment, coding

Beginning in April 2024, we’ll offer webinars about documentation and coding of common challenging diagnoses. These live, lunchtime educational sessions will also include an opportunity for you to ask questions.

Following is our current schedule and the tentative topics for the sessions. All sessions start at noon Eastern time and generally last for 30 minutes. Register for the session that best works with your schedule on the provider training website.

Session date

Topic

April 17

HCC and risk adjustment updates

May 22

Medical record documentation and MEAT

June 26

Orthopedic and sports medicine coding tips

July 10

Diabetes and weight management coding tips

Aug. 21

Cardiovascular disease and vascular surgery coding tips

Sept. 18

Neurosurgery, dementia and cognitive impairment coding tips

Oct. 2

ICD-10-CM updates

Nov. 13

Oncology coding tips

Dec. 11

CPT updates for 2025

Provider training website access

Provider portal users with an Availity® Essentials account can access the provider training website by logging in to availity.com,** clicking on Payer Space in the top menu bar and then clicking on the BCBSM and BCN logo. Then click on the Applications tab, scroll down to the Provider Training Site tile and click on it.

You can also directly access the training website if you don’t have a provider portal account through this link: Provider training website.

After logging in to the provider training website, look in Event Calendar to sign up for your desired session. You can also quickly search for all the sessions with the keyword “lunchtime” and then look under the results for Events.

Questions?

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network don’t own or control this website.


Continuity of care arrangements are expanded to Medicare Advantage members

Starting Jan. 1, 2024, Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network expanded continuity of care arrangements to accommodate our Medicare Advantage (Medicare Plus Blue℠ and BCN Advantage℠) members.

In the past, these arrangements applied primarily to members getting care from out-of-network providers. Now, they also apply to members who are new to our Medicare Plus Blue and BCN Advantage plans or who are moving between those plans.

How continuity of care works

In line with continuity of care guidelines set by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Blue Cross and BCN will allow members to continue with an existing course of treatment from their current provider within the first 90 calendar days after enrollment. However, first:

  • Blue Cross and BCN must confirm that the member is in an active course of treatment when they join one of our Medicare Advantage plans or when they move from a Medicare Plus Blue plan to a BCN Advantage plan or vice versa.
  • Providers must document the member’s course of treatment or treatment plan in the member’s medical record. The documentation must show the services planned for the member.
  • Providers who submit a request for prior authorization should include a note that lets us know the member is undergoing an active course of treatment.
  • Blue Cross and BCN will ask for the member’s treatment plan to use in reviewing the prior authorization request.

What is a course of treatment?

According to CMS, a course of treatment is a prescribed order or ordered course of treatment for a specific individual with a specific condition outlined and decided upon ahead of time with the patient and provider. 
A course of treatment may be part of a treatment plan but is not required. An active course of treatment means a course of treatment in which a patient is actively seeing the provider and following the course of treatment.


Requirements and codes changed for some medical benefit drugs

Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network encourage proper utilization of high-cost medications that are covered under the medical benefit. As part of this effort, we maintain comprehensive lists of requirements for our members. 

In October, November and December of 2023, we added requirements for some medical benefit drugs. These requirements went into effect on various dates. In addition, some drugs were assigned new HCPCS codes.

Changes in requirements

For Blue Cross commercial and BCN commercial members, we added prior authorization requirements for the following drugs:

HCPCS code

Brand name

Generic name

J3590**

Casgevy™  

Exagamglogene autotemcel

J3590**

Cosentyx® IV

Secukinumab

J3590**

Daxxify®

Daxibotulinum toxina-lanm

J3590**

Entyvio® SQ

Vedolizumab

J3590**

Lyfgenia™

Lovo-cel

J3590**

Omvoh™ IV and SC

Mirikizumab-mrkz

J3590**

Pombiliti™  

Cipaglucosidase alfa-atga

J3590**

Rethymic®

Allogeneic processed thymus tissue–agdc

J3590**

Rivfloza™

Nedosiran - SQ injection

J3590**

Tofidence™

Tocilizumab-bavi - IV injection

J3590**

Wezlana™

Ustekinumab-auub

For Medicare Plus Blue℠ and BCN Advantage℠ members, we added prior authorization requirements for the following drugs:

HCPCS code

Brand name

Generic name

For dates of service on or after

J1745

Generic (non-biosimilar)

Infliximab

Oct. 15, 2023

J3490

Izervay™

Avacincaptad pegol

Oct. 15, 2023

J3490

Eylea® HD

Aflibercept

Oct. 15, 2023

J3590

Lantidra™

Donislecel-jujn

Oct. 15, 2023

J3590

Veopoz™

Pozelimab-bbfg

Oct. 15, 2023

J3490

Daxxify®

DaxibotulinumtoxinA-lanm

Dec. 18, 2023

Code changes

The table below shows HCPCS code changes that were effective Oct. 1, 2023 (unless otherwise noted), for the medical benefit drugs we manage.

New HCPCS code

Brand name

Generic name

C9157

Qalsody®

Tofersen

J0801

Acthar® Gel

Corticotropin

J0802

Purified Cortropin® Gel

Corticotropin

J2781

Syfovre®

Pegcetacoplan injection

Drug lists

For additional details, see the following drug lists:

These lists are also available on the ereferrals.bcbsm.com website at:

Additional information about these requirements

We communicated these changes previously through provider alerts, which contain additional details.
You can view the provider alerts at ereferrals.bcbsm.com and on our Provider Resources site, which is accessible through our provider portal, availity.com.***

Additional information for Blue Cross commercial groups

For Blue Cross commercial groups, authorization requirements apply only to groups that participate in the standard commercial Medical Drug Prior Authorization Program for drugs administered under the medical benefit. To determine whether a group participates in the prior authorization program, see the Specialty Pharmacy Prior Authorization Master Opt-in/out Group list. A link to this list is also available on the Blue Cross Medical Benefit Drugs page of the ereferrals.bcbsm.com website.

Blue Cross and Blue Shield Federal Employee Program® members and UAW Retiree Medical Benefits Trust (non-Medicare) members don't participate in the standard prior authorization program.

Reminder: An authorization approval isn’t a guarantee of payment. Health care providers need to verify eligibility and benefits for members.

 

**May be assigned a unique code in the future.

***Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan doesn’t own or control this website.

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.


Medicare Plus Blue clinical editing portal available through Availity

To improve provider experience, Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan is making a clinical editing portal available to health care providers that provides additional details when a when a Medicare Plus Blue℠ claim goes through clinical editing. Health care providers can use the portal to enter a new hypothetical claim or look up an existing claim for Medicare Plus Blue members whose member ID begins with X3L. This functionality is expected to expand to more members in the future.

Claims entered in the portal aren’t submitted into the claims system. The portal provides a way to test different claim scenarios and identify potential edits without submitting a live claim. When looking up an existing claim, unique identifying information is required, such as provider ID and either a claim ID or a patient ID and date of service).

To access the clinical editing portal, follow these steps:

  1. Log in to the Availity website at availity.com.**
  2. Click on Payer Spaces on the Availity menu bar.
  3. Click on the Blue Cross and BCN logo.
  4. Click on Optum CES Portal on the Applications tab.

When using the portal, providers must input claims data, whether hypothetical or existing. Once the claim has been analyzed, the line-by-line edits are returned and displayed in the user interface.

This is a simulation tool that doesn’t guarantee approval or reimbursement of a claim. Other edits may apply when a claim is submitted and processed.

A user guide is available on the provider training site on Availity.

 

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan doesn’t own or control this website.


Omvoh to have a site-of-care requirement for most commercial members starting in May

We’re adding a site-of-care requirement for Omvoh™ SC and IV (mirikizumab-mrkz), HCPCS code J3590, which is covered under the medical benefit, for dates of service on or after May 1, 2024. The new requirement applies to Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network group and individual commercial members.

The NovoLogix® online tool will prompt you to select a site of care when you submit prior authorization requests for this drug. If the request meets clinical criteria for the drug and is for one of the following sites of care, it will be approved automatically:

  • Doctor’s or other health care provider’s office
  • Ambulatory infusion center
  • The member’s home, from a home infusion therapy provider

Additional information or documentation may be required for requests to administer Omvoh in an outpatient hospital setting.

This drug already requires prior authorization. Providers can submit prior authorization requests using NovoLogix. The new site-of-care requirement is in addition to the current prior authorization requirement.

Members who start courses of treatment with Omvoh before May 1, 2024, will be able to continue receiving the drug in their current location until their existing authorization expires. If those members then continue treatment under a new prior authorization, the site-of-care requirement outlined above will apply.

Some Blue Cross commercial groups aren’t subject to these requirements

For Blue Cross commercial groups, the prior authorization and site-of-care requirements apply only to groups that participate in the standard commercial Medical Drug Prior Authorization Program for drugs administered under members’ medical benefit. To determine whether a group participates in the prior authorization program, see the Specialty Pharmacy Prior Authorization Master Opt-in/out Group list.
Blue Cross and Blue Shield Federal Employee Program® members and UAW Retiree Medical Benefits Trust non-Medicare members don’t participate in the standard prior authorization program.

List of requirements

For a full list of requirements related to drugs covered under the medical benefit, see the Blue Cross and BCN utilization management medical drug list for Blue Cross commercial and BCN commercial members. We’ll update this list prior to the effective date.

You can access this list and other information about requesting prior authorization at ereferrals.bcbsm.com, at these locations:

Reminder: Prior authorization isn't a guarantee of payment. Health care practitioners need to verify eligibility and benefits for members.

 

NovoLogix is an independent company that provides an online prescription drug prior authorization tool for Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network.


Cabenuva to have requirements for most commercial members, starting May 1

For dates of service on or after May 1, 2024, we’re adding prior authorization and site-of-care requirements for most Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network group and individual commercial members for the following drug covered under the medical benefit:

  • Cabenuva (cabotegravir, rilpivirine), HCPCS code J0741

For members who start a new course of treatment on or after May 1, providers will need to submit a prior authorization request.

How to submit prior authorization requests

Submit prior authorization requests through the NovoLogix® online tool. The tool offers real-time status checks and immediate approvals for certain medications.

To access NovoLogix:

  1. Log in to our provider portal through Availity® at availity.com.**
  2. Click Payer Spaces in the menu bar, then click the BCBSM and BCN logo.
  3. Access the links to the NovoLogix tools in the Applications tab.

Note: If you need to request access to our provider portal, see the Register for web tools webpage on bcbsm.com.

The NovoLogix online tool will prompt you to select a site of care when you submit prior authorization requests for this drug. If the request meets clinical criteria for the drug and is for one of the following sites of care, it’ll be approved automatically:

  • Doctor or other health care provider’s office
  • Ambulatory infusion center
  • The member’s home, from a home infusion therapy provider

Additional information or documentation may be required for requests to administer Cabenuva in an outpatient hospital setting.

What about members who start a course of treatment before May 1?

For members who start a course of treatment with Cabenuva before May 1, 2024, providers won’t need to submit prior authorization requests for dates of service from May 1 through Nov. 1, 2024. We’ll automatically approve authorizations through Nov. 1 and these members can continue receiving the drug in the original site of care during that time.

For dates of service on or after Nov. 2, 2024, for these members, providers will need to submit prior authorization requests. These requests will be subject to the site-of-care requirement outlined above.

Some Blue Cross commercial groups aren’t subject to these requirements

For Blue Cross commercial groups, this prior authorization requirement applies only to groups that participate in the standard commercial Medical Drug Prior Authorization Program for drugs administered under the medical benefit. To determine whether a group participates in the prior authorization program, see the Specialty Pharmacy Prior Authorization Master Opt-in/out Group list.

Note: Blue Cross and Blue Shield Federal Employee Program® members and UAW Retiree Medical Benefits Trust (non-Medicare) members don’t participate in the standard prior authorization program.

List of requirements

For a full list of requirements related to drugs covered under the medical benefit, see the Blue Cross and BCN utilization management medical drug list for Blue Cross commercial and BCN commercial members. We’ll update this list prior to the effective date.

You can access these lists and other information about requesting prior authorization on the following pages of the ereferrals.bcbsm.com website:

Prior authorization isn’t a guarantee of payment. Health care practitioners need to verify eligibility and benefits for members.

 

**Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network don’t own or control this website.

Availity® is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to offer provider portal and electronic data interchange services.

NovoLogix is an independent company that provides an online prescription drug prior authorization tool for Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network.


Pemfexy to have step therapy requirements starting in April

Members must try and fail two other pemetrexed drugs before we’ll approve prior authorization requests for Pemfexy® (pemetrexed), HCPCS code J9304, for dates of service on or after April 26, 2024.

Members must try and fail two of the following drugs:

  • Alimta® (pemetrexed), HCPCS code J9305
  • Pemrydi® RTU (pemetrexed), HCPCS code J9324
  • Pemetrexed (generic, various brands), HCPCS codes J9294, J9296, J9297, J9314, J9322, J9323

These drugs are covered under the members’ medical benefits, not their pharmacy benefits.

All of the drugs listed above continue to require prior authorization through Carelon Medical Benefits Management, as specified in the pertinent drug lists, which are linked below. We’ll update these lists to reflect the new step therapy requirement prior to the effective date.

Prior authorization isn’t a guarantee of payment. Health care providers need to verify eligibility and benefits for members.

Members affected by this change

This new requirement applies to:

  • Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan commercial:
  • Blue Care Network commercial members
  • Medicare Plus Blue℠ members
  • BCN Advantage℠ members

More about the prior authorization requirements
For a full list of requirements related to drugs covered under the medical benefit, see the following lists:

Carelon Medical Benefits Management is an independent company that contracts with Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network to manage prior authorizations for select services.


Blue Cross and BCN covers additional vaccines

To increase access to vaccines and decrease the risk of vaccine-preventable disease outbreaks, Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan and Blue Care Network added the following vaccine to our list of vaccines covered under the pharmacy benefit.

Vaccine

Common name and abbreviation

Effective date


Penbraya™


Meningococcal serogroups A, B, C, W, Y vaccine (MenACWY-TT/ MenB-FHbp)


Jan. 1, 2024

The following charts list vaccines that are covered under eligible members’ prescription drug plans. Most Blue Cross and BCN commercial (non-Medicare) members with prescription drug coverage are eligible. If a member meets the coverage criteria, the vaccine is covered with no out-of-pocket costs.

Vaccines that have an age requirement

Vaccine

Common name and abbreviation

Age Requirement

Gardasil 9®

Human papillomavirus vaccine (HPV)

9 to 45 years old

Influenza virus

Influenza vaccine (Flu)

Under 9: 2 vaccines per 180 days
9 and older: 1 vaccine per 180 days

Prevnar 13®

Pneumococcal 13 - valent conjugate vaccine

65 and older

Vaccines that have no age requirement

Vaccine

Common name and abbreviation

  • Dengvaxia®

Dengue vaccine (DEN4CYD)

  • Daptacel®
  • Infanrix®

Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP)

  • Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids

Diphtheria, tetanus vaccine (DT)

  • Kinrix®
  • Quadracel®

DTap and inactivated poliovirus vaccine (DTaP-IPV)

  • Pediarix®

DTaP, hepatitis B, and inactivated poliovirus vaccine (DTaP-HepB-IPV)

  • Vaxelis®

DTaP, inactivated poliovirus, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and hepatitis B vaccine (DTaP-IPV-Hib-HepB)

  • ActHIB®
  • Hiberix®
  • PedvaxHIB®



Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine (Hib)

  • Havrix®
  • Vaqta®

Hepatitis A (HepA)

  • Engerix-B®
  • Heplisav-B®
  • PreHevbrio™    
  • Recombivax HB®

Hepatitis B (HepB)

  • Twinrix®

Hepatitis A & B (HepA-HEPB)

  • M-M-R II®
  • Priorix®

Measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR)

  • ProQuad®

Measles, mumps, rubella and varicella vaccine (MMRV)

  • Menveo®

Meningococcal serogroups A, C, W, Y vaccine (MenACWY-CRM)

  • Menactra®

Meningococcal serogroups A, C, W, Y vaccine (MenACWY-D)

  • MenQuadfi®

Meningococcal serogroups A, C, W, Y vaccine (MenACWY-TT)

  • Penbraya™

Meningococcal serogroups A, B, C, W, Y vaccine (MenACWY-TT/ MenB-FHbp)

  • Bexsero®

Meningococcal serogroup B vaccine (MenB-4C)

  • Trumenba®

Meningococcal serogroup B vaccine (MenB-FHbp)

  • Vaxneuvance™

Pneumococcal 15-valent conjugate vaccine (PCV15)

  • Prevnar 20™

Pneumococcal 20-valent conjugate vaccine (PCV20)

  • Pneumovax 23®

Pneumococcal 23-valent polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23)

  • IPOL®

Poliovirus (IPV)

  • Arexvy™
  • Abrysvo™
  • Beyfortus™

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

  • Rotarix®

Rotavirus vaccine (RV1)

  • RotaTeq®

Rotavirus vaccine (RV5)

  • Tdvax®
  • Tenivac®

Tetanus and diphtheria vaccine (Td)

  • Adacel®
  • Boostrix®

Tetanus, diphtheria and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap).

  • Varivax®

Varicella vaccine (VAR) (chickenpox)

  • Shingrix®

Zoster vaccine (RZV) (Shingles)


Covid Vaccines

  • Pfizer COVID-19 Vaccine (2023-2024), 6 months to 4 years old
  • Pfizer COVID-19Vaccine (2023-2024), 5 to 11 years old
  • Comirnaty, Pfizer COVID-19 Vaccine (2023-2024)
  • Novavax, COVID-19 Vaccine (2023-2024)
  • Spikevax, Moderna COVID-19 Vaccine (2023 -2024)

If a member doesn’t meet the age requirement for a vaccine, Blue Cross and BCN won’t cover the vaccine under the prescription drug plan and the claim will reject.

Vaccines must be administered by certified, trained and qualified registered pharmacists.

No portion of this publication may be copied without the express written permission of Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan, except that BCBSM participating health care providers may make copies for their personal use. In no event may any portion of this publication be copied or reprinted and used for commercial purposes by any party other than BCBSM.

*CPT codes, descriptions and two-digit numeric modifiers only are copyright 2022 American Medical Association. All rights reserved.