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October 2023

Billing chart: Blue Cross highlights medical, benefit policy changes

You’ll find the latest information about procedure codes and Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan billing guidelines in the following chart.

This billing chart is organized numerically by procedure code. Newly approved procedures will appear under the New Payable Procedures heading. Procedures for which we have changed a billing guideline or added a new payable group will appear under Updates to Payable Procedures. Procedures for which we are clarifying our guidelines will appear under Policy Clarifications. New procedures that are not covered will appear under Experimental Procedures.

We'll publish information about new Blue Cross groups or changes to group benefits under the Group Benefit Changes heading.

For more detailed descriptions of the Blue Cross' policies for these procedures, check under the Commercial Policy tab in Benefit Explainer on Availity®. To access this online information:

    1. Log in to availity.com.
    2 .Click on Payer Spaces on the Availity menu bar.
    3. Click on the BCBSM and BCN logo.
    4. Click on Benefit Explainer on the Applications tab.
    5. Click on the Commercial Policy tab.
    6. Click on Topic.
    7. Under Topic Criteria, click on the circle for Unique Identifier and click the drop-down arrow next to Choose Identifier Type, then click on HCPCS Code.
    8. Enter the procedure code.
    9. Click on Finish.
    10. Click on Search.
Code* BCBSM changes to:
Basic Benefit and Medical Policy, Group
Variations Payment Policy, Guidelines
POLICY CLARIFICATIONS

Established
15822, 15823, 67900, 67901, 67902, 67903, 67904, 67906, 67908

Experimental

15820, 15821

Basic benefit and medical policy

Blepharoplasty and brow ptosis repair

Blepharoplasty procedures of the upper eyelid and repair of brow ptosis are safe and effective restorative procedures when performed to correct:

  • Visual impairment due to dermatochalasis, blepharochalasis or blepharoptosis
  • Symptomatic redundant skin weighing down on upper lashes
  • Prosthetic difficulties in an anophthalmic socket
  • Blepharospasm unresponsive to conservative treatment

Blepharoplasties of the lower lid are considered primarily cosmetic in nature. This service is usually performed to improve appearance or self-esteem, not to treat a specific disease state or improve function.

Inclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

Criteria for blepharoplasty:

This procedure is considered reconstructive and not cosmetic when one of the following solid bullets are met:

  • Visual field measurement is obtainable and all the following are met:
    • There is a difference of 12 degrees or more or at least 30% superior visual field difference is demonstrated between visual field testing before and after manual elevation of the upper eyelids
    • The medical record should include visual field testing reports in both taped and untaped positions. Photographs should be maintained as part of the medical record, including photographs demonstrating the head held in an erect position with eyes open and focused straight ahead. Views should reveal the full-face anterior position, as well as the right and left lateral views with a straightforward gaze.
  • Visual field measurement isn’t obtainable and all the following are met:
    • Infants and children whose blepharoptosis is severe enough to cause a functional visual impairment.
    • While it may not be possible to obtain visual field measurements, documentation and photographs reflective of the lid obstruction should be maintained as part of the medical record.
  • To relieve eye symptoms associated with blepharospasm when other treatments have failed or are contraindicated (such as an injection of Botulinum Toxin A).
  • Correction of an anophthalmic socket when one of the following are met:
    • There is documented difficulties with a prosthesis due to lid position.
    • A margin reflex distance of 2.5 mm or less.
    • A palpebral fissure height on down-gaze of 1 mm or less.

Criteria for repair of brow ptosis (browplasty) and blepharoptosis:

This procedure is considered reconstructive and not cosmetic if all the following criteria are met:

  • There is a difference of 12 degrees or more or at least 30% superior visual field difference is demonstrated between visual field testing before and after manual elevation of the upper eyelids.
  • The medical record should include visual fieldtesting reports in both taped and untaped positions. Photographs should be maintained as part of the medical record. Views should reveal the full-face anterior position, as well as the right and left lateral views with a straightforward gaze.

Clinical review of these procedures is usually required. Providers should consult the plan to determine whether photographs should be forwarded with the request. Photos should be maintained in the record in the event they’re requested for later review.

Exclusions:

  • Lower lid blepharoplasty is considered cosmetic.
  • Blepharoplasty/ptosis repair or brow lift surgery to improve the appearance when no functional impairment exists is considered cosmetic.

20930, 20931, 20936, 20937, 20938, 20939

Basic benefit and medical policy

Bone graft substitutes

The use of bone grafts/substitutes is considered established for the promotion of bone healing when medical criteria is met, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

The use of bone grafts/substitutes that are listed below are considered established for the promotion of bone healing when all the following are met:

  • Graft is used according to FDA-approved (on-label) indications and contraindications, where applicable.
  • Graft is used alone or in combination with another acceptable graft (an osteoconductive allograft with an osteoinductive allograft). Up to one type of osteoconductive allograft or one type of osteoinductive allograft is used per surgical incident.
  • Recognizing that there are clinical scenarios where more product may be necessary, the amount of allograft is determined by the surgeon based on multiple factors including the number of levels fused, size of the patient, volume and quality of local bone or iliac crest bone harvested, and pseudoarthrosis risk.
  • Bone substitute graft isn’t being used to backfill or reconstruct the donor site.
  • The surgical plan or operative note (whichever is applicable) should identify the graft manufacturer, product name and amount or size of graft planned/used.

Where applicable, only grafts with FDA approval are considered medically necessary. The following are considered acceptable grafts:

  • Autograft (preferred option: considered gold standard in bone healing enhancement)
  • Allograft — morselized or structural
  • Demineralized bone matrix, or DBM
  • Calcium based synthetics:
    • Beta-tricalcium phosphate
    • Hydroxyapatite
    • Calcium phosphate
    • Calcium sulfate
  • Bone marrow aspirate (not concentrated) combined with any other acceptable graft
  • Bone morphogenic protein-rhBMP-2 (Infuse). See the JUMP Policy Bone Morphogenetic Protein.
  • Peptide-15 (i-Factor) when all the following are met:
    • Single level anterior cervical discectomy and fusion between C3 and C7 in a skeletally mature patients who meet criteria for cervical fusion
    • Must be used in combination with a cortical ring allograft and anterior plate fixation

Note: Processed allograft substitutes must have meaningful human-based studies to be considered for approval.

Exclusions:

Due to lack of sufficient evidence to establish safety and efficacy, the following are considered experimental and not medically necessary:

  • Cell-based substitute grafts
  • Non-calcium-based synthetics:
    • Bioactive glass
    • Synthetic polymers, e.g., Cortoss (PMMA)
  • Concentrated bone marrow aspirate
  • Platelet rich plasma
  • Human amniotic tissue
  • Nano-crystalline surface-modified synthetics

Note: Exceptions may be made on a case-by-case basis for those who are unable to accept human tissue grafts, due to ethical or religious reasons, when autograft isn’t a viable option.

30469

Basic benefit and medical policy

Low-dose radiofrequency for nasal valve

Low-dose, temperature-controlled radiofrequency intranasal tissue remodeling as a treatment of nasal airway obstruction is considered experimental. The positive affect on clinical outcomes hasn’t been definitively demonstrated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusionary and exclusionary guidelines:

Not applicable

31647, 31648, 31649, 31651

Basic benefit and medical policy

Bronchial valves

The insertion of endobronchial valves is established in adult individuals with respiratory compromise from hyperinflation associated with severe heterogeneous lung emphysema with little to no collateral ventilation.

The insertion of endobronchial valves is established for persistent bronchopleural air leak causing pneumothorax that isn’t improving in five or more days after chest tube insertion. 

The medical policy statement and inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusionary and exclusionary guidelines:

This procedure should be performed at a facility with the ability to admit. Admission should be based on perceived risks or complications.

Criteria for pleural air leak

Bronchopleural air leak not improving five or more days after chest tube placement, when the site of air leak can be identified by balloon occlusion of the distal affected bronchus.

Criteria for emphysema

Respiratory insufficiency caused by bullous emphysema in an individual found, after multidisciplinary evaluation, not to be a candidate for lung volume reduction surgery.

Inclusions:

  • Ex-smokers
  • PFT**
    • Post BD** FEV1** 15-45%
    • TLC** ≥100%
    • RV** ≥150%
  • ABG** with pCO2 <60
  • Completed pulmonary rehabilitation program or enrollment in a pulmonary rehabilitation program  of at least six to eight sessions or attestation from a physician that the patient has received adequate pulmonary rehabilitation to proceed with surgery
  • CT imaging confirming intact fissure between lobes

Exclusions:

  • Any general contraindications to bronchoscopy or general anesthesia
  • Lung findings:
    • Pulmonary nodule requiring work up
    • Giant bullae (>1/3 hemithorax)
    • Cardiovascular event (e.g., myocardial infarction or heart failure) in the prior six months
    • Recent CVA**/stroke (three months)
    • Evidence of uncontrolled pulmonary hypertension with systolic PAP >45 mmHg on TEE**

**PFT stands for pulmonary function test; BD stands for bronchodilator; FEV1 is forced expiratory volume at 1 second; TLC is total lung capacity; RV is right ventricular; ABG is arterial blood gas; PAH is pulmonary arterial hypertension; PAP is pulmonary artery pressure; CV is cardiovascular; CVA is cerebral vascular accident; TEE is transthoracic echocardiography.

38204,38205, 38206, 38207, 38208, 38209, 38210, 38211, 38212, 38213, 38214, 38215, 38230, 38232, 38240, 38241, 38242, 38243, 81265, 81266, 81267, 81268, 81370, 81371, 81372, 81373, 81374, 81375, 81376, 81377, 81378, 81379, 81380, 81381, 81382, 81383, 86812, 86813, 86816, 86817, 86821, S2140, S2142, S2150

Basic benefit and medical policy

HCT for acute lymphoblastic leukemia

The safety and effectiveness of hematopoietic cell transplantation for acute lymphoblastic leukemia have been established. It may be considered a useful therapeutic option for individuals who meet specific selection criteria.

Inclusionary criteria have been clarified, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusionary and exclusionary guidelines:

Childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Inclusions:

  • Autologous or allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation to treat childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia, or ALL, in first complete remissiona but at high riskb of relapse.
  • Autologous or allogeneic cell transplantation to treat childhood ALL in second or greater remission or refractory ALL.
  • Allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation to treat relapsing ALL after a prior autologous HCT.
  • Reduced-intensity conditioning allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation as a treatment of ALL in children who are in completea first or second remission and who, for medical reasons, would be unable to tolerate a standard myeloablative conditioning regimen.

aDefined by bone marrow biopsy/aspirate demonstrating < 5% blasts

bChildhood high risk factors for relapse
Adverse prognostic factors and factors associated with high risk of relapse in children include the following:

  • Age younger than 1 year or older than 9  
  • White blood cell count at presentation above 50,000/μL
  • Hypodiploidy (<45 chromosomes)
  • Translocation involving chromosomes 9 and 22 (t[9;22]), also known as BCR-ABL fusion
  • Translocation involving chromosomes 4 and 11 (t[4;11]) aka MLL-AF4 fusion
  • Pre-B or T-lineage immunophenotype
  • Central nervous system involvement
  • Poor response to initial therapy including poor response to prednisone prophase
  • Poor treatment response to induction therapy at six weeks with high-risk having ≥ 0.01% minimal residual disease measured by flow cytometry

Exclusions:

  • All other conditions not listed above

Adult acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Inclusions:

  • Autologous hematopoietic cell transplantation to treat adult ALL in first complete remissiona but at high riskb of relapse
  • Allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation to treat adult ALL in first complete remissiona for any risk level
  • Allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation to treat adult ALL in second or greater remissions, or in adults with relapsed or refractory ALL
  • Allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation to treat relapsing ALL after a prior autologous HCT
  • Reduced-intensity conditioning allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation as a treatment of ALL in adults who are in completea first or second remission and who, for medical reasons, would be unable to tolerate a standard myeloablative conditioning regimen

aDefined by bone marrow biopsy/aspirate demonstrating < 5% blasts

bAdult high risk factors for relapse
Individual with any of the following may be considered at high-risk for relapse:

  • Older than 35 years
  • Leukocytosis at presentation of greater than 30,000/μl (B-cell lineage) or greater than 10,000/μl (T-cell lineage)
  • “Poor prognosis” genetic abnormalities like the Philadelphia chromosome (t[9;22])
  • Extramedullary disease
  • Time to attain complete remission longer than four weeks

Exclusions:

  • Autologous hematopoietic cell transplantation to treat adult ALL in second or greater remission or those with refractory disease

38204,38205, 38206, 38207, 38208, 38209, 38210, 38211, 38212, 38213, 38214, 38215, 38230, 38232, 38240, 38241, 38242, 38243, 81265, 81266, 81267, 81268, 81370, 81371, 81372, 81373, 81374, 81375, 81376, 81377, 81378, 81379, 81380, 81381, 81382, 81383, 86812, 86813, 86816, 86817, 86821, S2140, S2142, S2150

Basic benefit and medical policy

HCT for myelodysplastic syndromes and myeloproliferative neoplasms

The safety and effectiveness of allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation have been established as a treatment of myelodysplastic syndromes or myeloproliferative neoplasms. It’s a useful therapeutic option for individuals meeting selection criteria. Inclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

Allogeneica HCT may be considered established as a treatment for one of the following:

  • Myelodysplastic syndromes
  • Myeloproliferative neoplasms

aIncludes myeloablative, reduced-intensity conditioning and nonmyeloablative regimens

Exclusions:

Individuals not meeting the above diagnostic criteria

38204, 38205, 38207, 38208, 38209, 38210, 38211, 38212, 38213, 38214, 38215, 38230, 38240, 38242, 38243, 81267, 81268, 81370, 81371, 81372, 81373, 81374, 81375, 81376, 81377, 81378, 81379, 81380, 81381, 81382, 81383, 86812, 86813, 86816, 86817, 86821, S2140, S2142, S2150

Basic benefit and medical policy

BMT – HCT for genetic diseases and acquired anemias, allogeneic

The safety and effectiveness of allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation for specified genetic diseases and acquired anemias have been established. It may be considered a useful therapeutic or diagnostic option when indicated.

Inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

Allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation is considered established for select individuals as listed below.

The conditioning regimens for the following diseases may include myeloablative conditioning, reduced intensity conditioning or non-myeloablative conditioning as determined by the treating provider/transplant center.

Hemoglobinopathies

  • Sickle cell anemia for children or young adults
  • Homozygous beta-thalassemia (i.e., thalassemia major)

Bone marrow failure syndromes

  • Aplastic anemia including hereditary (including Fanconi anemia, dyskeratosis congenita, Shwachman-Diamond syndrome, Diamond-Blackfan syndrome) or acquired (e.g., secondary to drug or toxin exposure) forms.

Primary immunodeficiencies

  • Absent or defective T-cell function
  • Absent or defective natural killer function
  • Absent or defective neutrophil function

The following diseases are examples of the above:

  • Lymphocyte Immunodeficiencies
    • Adenosine deaminase deficiency
    • Artemis deficiency
    • Calcium channel deficiency
    • CD 40 ligand deficiency
    • Cernunnos/X-linked lymphoproliferative disease deficiency
    • CHARGE syndrome with immune deficiency
    • Common gamma chain deficiency
    • Deficiencies in CD45, CD3, CD8
    • DiGeorge syndrome
    • DNA ligase IV deficiency syndrome
    • Interleukin-7 receptor alpha deficiency
    • Janus-associated kinase 3 deficiency
    • Major histocompatibility class II deficiency
    • Omenn syndrome
    • Purine nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency
    • Recombinase-activating gene 1/2 deficiency
    • Reticular dysgenesis
    • Severe combined immunodeficiency
    • Winged helix deficiency
    • Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
    • X-linked lymphoproliferative disease
    • Zeta-chain-associated protein-70 deficiency
  • Phagocytic deficiencies
    • Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
    • Chronic granulomatous disease
    • Griscelli syndrome, type 2
    • Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis
    • Interferon-gamma receptor deficiencies
    • Kostmann syndrome
    • Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
    • Severe congenital neutropenias
    • Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
  • Other immunodeficiencies
    • Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome
    • Cartilage hair hypoplasia
    • CD25 deficiency
    • Hyper IgD and IgE syndromes
    • Immunodeficiency, centromeric instability, and facial dysmorphism syndrome
    • Immunodysregulation polyendocrinopathy enteropathy X-linked syndrome
    • Nuclear factor-κ B (NF-κB) essential modulator deficiency
    • NF-κB inhibitor, NF-κB-α deficiency
    • Nijmegen breakage syndrome

Inherited metabolic disease

  • Lysosomal and peroxisomal storage disorders except for Hunter, Sanfilippo and Morquio syndromes

The following diseases are examples of the above:

  • Hurler
  • Maroteaux-Lamy
  • Sly syndromes
  • Childhood onset cerebral X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy
  • Globoid-cell leukodystrophy
  • Metachromatic leukodystrophy
  • Alpha-mannosidosis
  • Aspartylglucosaminuria
  • Fucosidosis
  • Gaucher types 1 and 3
  • Farber lipogranulomatosis
  • Galactosialidosis
  • GM1
  • Gangliosidosis
  • Mucolipidosis II (I-cell disease)
  • Multiple sulfatase deficiency
  • Niemann-Pick
  • Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis
  • Sialidosis
  • Wolman disease

Genetic disorders affecting skeletal tissue

  • Infantile malignant osteopetrosis (Albers-Schönberg disease or marble bone disease)

Exclusions:

Allogeneic HCT hasn’t been effective in treating:

  • Hunter syndrome
  • Sanfilippo syndrome
  • Morquio syndrome

38206, 38207, 38210, 38211, 38212, 38213, 38214, 38215, 38232, 38241, S2150

Experimental

38204, 38205, 38207, 38208, 38209, 38210, 38211, 38212, 38213, 38214, 38215, 38230, 38240, 38242, 38243, 81267, 81268, 81370, 81371, 81372, 81373, 81374, 81375, 81376, 81377, 81378, 81379, 81380, 81381, 81382, 81383, 86812, 86813, 86816, 86817, 86821, S2140, S2142, S2150

Basic benefit and medical policy

BMT – HCT for cns and embryonal tumors and ependymoma

Embryonal tumors of the CNS

The safety and effectiveness of specified autologous hematopoietic cell transplants for embryonal tumors of the central nervous system have been established.  It may be considered a useful therapeutic tool when indicated for individuals who meet specific selection criteria.

Ependymoma

Autologous, tandem autologous and allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplants are experimental for the treatment of ependymoma. They haven’t been scientifically demonstrated to improve clinical outcomes better than conventional treatment.

Triple tandem transplant

The effectiveness and clinical utility of an autologous triple tandem stem cell transplant have been established. It’s a useful therapeutic option for individuals with pediatric CNS tumors who meet specific selection criteria.

Inclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

The conditioning regimens for the following diseases may include myeloablative conditioning, reduced intensity conditioning or non-myeloablative conditioning as determined by the treating provider/transplant center.

Embryonal tumors and choroid plexus tumors of the CNS

Inclusions:

  • Autologous hematopoietic cell transplantation for the initial treatment of (newly diagnosed) embryonala tumors of the central nervous system, or CNS, that show partial or complete response to induction chemotherapy, or stable disease after induction therapy
  • Autologous hematopoietic cell transplantation for the treatment of recurrent embryonala tumors of the CNS
  • Triple tandem autologous hematopoietic cell transplant for the treatment of embryonala or choroid plexus tumors when both of the following are met:
    • Procedure may lead to reduced toxicities or less risk to future neurocognition
    • Other established treatments, such as single autologous transplant, have been deemed too risky

aEmbryonal tumors of the CNS include medulloblastoma, medulloepithelioma, supratentorial PNETs (pineoblastoma, cerebral neuroblastoma, ganglioneuroblastoma), ependymoblastoma, atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumors and embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes.

Exclusions:

  • Allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation for the treatment of embryonal or choroid plexus tumors of the CNS.

Ependymoma

Inclusions:

Not applicable

Exclusions:

  • Autologous, tandem autologous and tandem allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplants are experimental for the treatment of ependymoma.

58679, 58825, 58970, 58974, 76948, 89250, 89254, 89258, 89259, 89268, 89335, 89337, 89342, 89343, 89346, 89352, 89353, 89356

Experimental
89398, 89344, 89354, 89335

Basic benefit and medical policy

Infertility related to cancer treatment

Preservation of fertility (including collection of oocytes and spermatozoa; cryopreservation, storage and thawing of embryos, oocytes and spermatozoa) may be considered established for individuals diagnosed with cancer and at risk for treatment-related infertility when criteria are met.

Inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

  • Preservation of fertility in a post-pubertal biological female or a post-pubertal biological male may be considered established when:
    • The individual is diagnosed with cancer, and the cancer treatment will result in irreversible infertility, such as with:
      • Gonadotoxic chemotherapy
      • Radiation therapy of the pelvis, lower abdomen or total body
      • Surgical removal of ovaries or testicles

Procedures that may be considered established in fertility preservation:

  • Collection of mature oocytes and spermatozoa
  • Cryopreservation of embryos, mature oocytes and spermatozoa
  • Storage of embryos, mature oocytes and spermatozoa for up to two years
  • Thawing of embryos, mature oocytes and spermatozoa within two years of the procurement
  • Culture of oocytes
  • Ovarian transposition (in anticipation of pelvic or lower abdominal radiation)
  • Embryo transfer, back to the member, within two years from cryopreservation

Exclusions:

  • Storage of sperm, oocytes or embryos for longer than two years
  • Co-culture of embryos
  • Post-menopausal females
  • Individuals who have undergone elective sterilization (vasectomy, tubal sterilization), with or without reversal
  • Request for fertility preservation that doesn’t meet inclusion criteria
  • Other assisted reproductive techniques, unless the member has additional benefit coverage for these services.
  • Cryopreservation of ovarian tissue, immature oocytes and testicular tissue in post-pubertal biological males
  • Cryopreservation of testicular tissue in pre-pubertal biologic males

61885, 61886, 61888

Basic benefit and medical policy

Codes *61885, *61886 and *61888

Procedure codes *61885, *61886 and *61888 are payable in the inpatient, outpatient and ambulatory surgery center locations only.

80145, 80230, 80280, 80299,** 83520**

Experimental
84999**

**Unlisted procedure codes

Basic benefit and medical policy

Measurement of serum and anti-drug antibody levels

Measurement of biologic agent drug levels and, if low, anti-drug antibody levels in individuals with inflammatory bowel disease, or IBD, is established.

Measurement of antidrug antibodies in other individuals being treated with a biologic agent, either alone or as a combination test, which includes the measurement of serum TNF blocking agent levels, is considered experimental. The use of these tests hasn’t been clinically proven to improve patient clinical outcomes or alter patient management.

The medical policy statement and inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

Biologic agent drug levels are established in individuals who meet all the following:

  • Diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease
  • Being treated with either Adalimumab, Infliximab, Ustekinumab and Vedolizumab
  • Being monitored for their response to the agent by biologic agent drug level

If the biologic agent drug level is below the therapeutic range, testing for the anti-drug antibody level is established.

Exclusions:

  • Any condition other than inflammatory bowel disease

81376, 81377, 81382, 81383

Basic benefit and medical policy

HLA testing for celiac disease

The effectiveness and clinical utility of human leukocyte antigen, or HLA, -DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 testing to rule out a diagnosis of celiac disease have been established. It may be considered a useful diagnostic option when indicated. Inclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 testing to rule out celiac disease may be considered medically necessary when one of the following are met:

  • Individuals with persistent symptoms despite negative serology (IgA tissue contaminants) and histology (biopsy)
  • Symptomatic individuals with discordant serologic and histologic (biopsy) findings
  • Symptomatic individuals with positive serology who are unable to undergo biopsy evaluation

Exclusions:

  • Familial testing of asymptomatic family members of individuals with proven disease
  • All other situations

81513, 81514, 87510- 87512, 87480- 87482, 87660, 87661

Experimental:
0352U

Basic benefit and medical policy

Testing for diagnosis of vaginitis

Nucleic acid amplification test or polymerase chain reaction, known as PCR, testing and multitarget PCR testing, when limited to known pathogenic species, is considered established for the diagnosis of vaginitis (BV, candidiasis, trichomonas) in symptomatic individuals, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions: 

The following are considered established for the management of vaginitis:

  • Nucleic acid amplification test or PCR testing and multitarget PCR testing, when limited to known pathogenic species, is considered established for the diagnosis of vaginitis (BV, candidiasis, trichomonas) in symptomatic individuals.

Exclusions:

  • All other tests for vaginitis not addressed above are considered experimental.

Established
82523, 83500, 83505, 83937, 84078, 84080**

**There is no specific CPT code for bone-specific alkaline phosphatase, or ALK, but several laboratories’ websites identify CPT *84080

Basic benefit and medical policy

Bone turnover markers for osteoporosis and other high bone turnover diseases

The safety and effectiveness of the measurement of alkaline phosphatase isoenzymes have been established. It’s a useful option for the diagnosis and monitoring of diseases of the bone, liver and endocrine system.

The measurement of bone turnover markers has been established in certain situations in individuals with osteoporosis.

The measurement of bone turnover marker levels has been established. It’s a useful diagnostic option for the initial diagnosis and subsequent monitoring of individuals with Paget’s disease of the bone.

The measurement of bone turnover markers is considered experimental in the diagnosis and management of individuals with all other conditions associated with high rates of bone turnover including, but not limited to, primary hyperparathyroidism and renal osteodystrophy. The peer-reviewed medical literature hasn’t demonstrated the clinical utility of these laboratory tests of bone turnover for improving patient clinical outcomes.

High-power laser therapy (nonsurgical laser) is considered experimental because evidence is insufficient to determine that the technology results in an improvement in the net health outcome.

The medical policy statement and inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

Measurement of bone turnover markers** for individuals with osteoporosis when one of the following is present:

  • Initial evaluation of osteoporosis
  • Management of individuals with osteoporosis
  • Determine fracture risk prediction in individuals with osteoporosis
  • In individuals treated with bisphosphonates for assessment of patient compliance with bisphosphonate therapy

Measurement of bone turnover markers** in individuals with Paget’s disease of the bone when one of the following is present:

  • Initial diagnosis of Paget’s disease
  • Subsequent monitoring and management of patients with Paget’s disease of the bone

**Bone turnover markers include (Rosen, 2018, 2019a, 2019b; Talwar, 2020):

  • Bone formation markers
    • Serum bone – specific alkaline phosphatase, or BSAP/BALP
    • Serum osteocalcin, or OC
    • Serum type 1 procollagen (C-terminal/N-terminal): C1NP or P1NP
  • Bone resorption markers
    • Urinary hydroxyproline, or HYP
    • Urinary total pyridinoline, or PYD
    • Urinary free deoxypyridinoline, or DPD
    • Urinary or serum collagen type 1 cross-linked N-telopeptide, or NTX
    • Urinary or serum collagen type 1 cross-linked C-telopeptide, or CTX
    • Bone sialoprotein, or BSP
    • Serum Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase 5b, or TRACP5b
    • Cathepsin K

Exclusions:

  • Measurement of bone turnover markers as a diagnostic test for osteoporosis
  • Measurement of bone turnover markers for teriparatide treatment monitoring in individuals with osteoporosis
  • Measurement of bone turnover markers in the diagnosis and management of all other conditions associated with high bone turnover including, but not limited to, individuals with primary hyperparathyroidism and renal osteodystrophy.

89253

Basic benefit and medical policy

*89253 removed from Physician Office Laboratory List

Procedure code *89253 was removed from the Physician Office Laboratory List. This procedure can no longer be performed in a physician’s office.

93797, 93798

Not covered:
S9472

Basic benefit and medical policy

Cardiac rehabilitation

Short-term outpatient Phase II cardiac rehabilitation is established as safe and effective and is an accepted standard therapy in patients with a history of specific cardiac conditions or procedures.

Cardiac rehabilitation must be a physician-supervised program that furnishes a prescribed exercise program, cardiac risk factor modification that includes education, counseling and behavioral intervention as well as psychosocial assessment and outcomes assessment.

Exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions (must meet all):

  • Phase II cardiac rehabilitation
  • Member must be medically stable and able to tolerate exercise for 20 to 40 minutes.
  • Must have a least one diagnosis (documented within the last 12 months) listed below:
    • Acute myocardial infarction
    • Coronary artery bypass graft surgery
    • Current stable angina pectoris
    • Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty or coronary stenting
    • Heart valve surgery
    • Heart or heart-lung transplant
    • Stable, chronic heart failure

Exclusions:

  • Phase III cardiac rehabilitation
  • Phase IV cardiac rehabilitation
  • Doesn’t meet diagnostic criteria
  • Repeat participation in a cardiac rehabilitation program in the absence of another qualifying cardiac event
  • Intensive cardiac rehabilitation (Refer to medical policy, “Intensive Cardiac Rehabilitation”)
  • Virtual cardiac rehabilitation is considered investigational.

97129, 97130

Basic benefit and medical policy

Cognitive rehabilitation

The safety and effectiveness of cognitive rehabilitation (as a distinct and definable component of the rehabilitation process) have been established. It may be considered a useful therapeutic option in the rehabilitation of patients meeting specific selection criteria.

Exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Group variations:

Be sure to check individual contract, certificate and rider for specific coverage information.

Inclusions:

Cognitive rehabilitation is an established procedure when used as an adjunctive treatment of cognitive deficits (e.g., attention, language, memory, reasoning, executive functions, problem-solving and visual processing) when all the following criteria are met:

  1. The cognitive deficits have been acquired as a result of neurologic impairment due to traumatic brain injury or stroke.
  2. Services must be provided by a qualified licensed professional and must be prescribed by the attending physician as part of the written care plan.
  3. There must be documentation of potential for improvements based on the patient’s pre-injury function.
  4. Patients must be able to actively participate in the program. The patient must have sufficient cognitive function to understand and participate in the program as well as adequate language expression and comprehension (e.g., the patient shouldn’t have severe aphasia).

The member is expected to make significant cognitive improvement (e.g., the member isn’t in a vegetative or custodial state).

Exclusions:

Excluded diagnoses include, but aren’t limited to:

  • Mental retardation
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Cerebral palsy
  • Encephalopathy
  • S/P brain surgery
  • Dementia (e.g., from Alzheimer’s disease, HIV-infection or Parkinson’s disease)
  • Cognitive decline chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  • Behavioral or psychiatric disorders such as attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and schizophrenia
  • Pervasive developmental disorders
  • Post-acute cognitive sequelae of SARS-CoV-2 infection
  • Autism spectrum disorders
  • Seizure disorders
  • Cognitive deficits due to brain tumor or previous treatment for cancer

B4161

Basic benefit and medical policy

Elemental formula

The safety and effectiveness of elemental formula for infants with a cow’s milk allergy have been established. Elemental formula is considered medically necessary when clinical criteria are met, effective Sept. 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

When all the following criteria are met:

  1. An infant must demonstrate an allergy to cow’s milk formula.
  2. Must have a documented failed trial of soy-based formula and a hydrolyzed formula, such as Alimentum, Nutramigen, Pregestimil, MJ3232A or Good Start, by clinical documentation of one of the following:
    • Skin reaction such as eczema or atopic dermatitis
    • Gastrointestinal disturbances, including malabsorption, blood or mucous in the stool, diarrhea, colic, abdominal distention or flatus
    • Frequent upper or lower respiratory tract infections or bronchospasm
    • Anaphylaxis
  3. Removal of common allergens from the infant’s or mother’s diet (if breastfed) has failed to resolve the symptoms.

Infants who meet these criteria may have Neocate, Neocate one plus, Neocate with DHA and ARA, Elecare, PurAmino, Alfamino reimbursed up to 12 months of age. Most infants outgrow their allergies by this time. Thereafter, reassessment by the pediatrician must be documented to justify continuance beyond 12 months.

Exclusions:

  • All other formulas not included as Elemental formula aren’t covered on this policy.
  • Elemental formula for adults
  • Elemental diet for adults
  • Elemental supplements
  • Elemental formula for inborn errors of metabolism

J1741

Basic benefit and medical policy

Caldolor (ibuprofen injection)

Effective May 11, 2023, Caldolor (ibuprofen injection) is covered for the following FDA-approved indications:

Caldolor is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug indicated in adults and pediatric patients age 3 months and older for the:

  • Management of mild to moderate pain and the management of moderate to severe pain as an adjunct to opioid analgesics
  • Reduction of fever

Dosage and administration:

  • Pediatric (pain and fever) age 3 months to less than 6 months: 10 mg/kg intravenously over 10 minutes up to a maximum single dose of 100 mg

J3262

Basic benefit and medical policy

Actemra (tocilizumab)

Actemra (tocilizumab) is covered for the following updated FDA-approved indication, effective Dec. 21, 2022:

Hospitalized adult patients with COVID-19 who are receiving systemic corticosteroids and require supplemental oxygen, non-invasive or invasive mechanical ventilation, or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation

J3490

J3590

Basic benefit and medical policy

Abilify Asimtufii (aripiprazole)

Abilify Asimtufii (aripiprazole) is considered established when criteria are met, effective April 27, 2023.

Abilify Asimtufii (aripiprazole) is an atypical antipsychotic indicated:

  • For the treatment of schizophrenia in adults
  • As maintenance monotherapy treatment of bipolar I disorder in adults

Dosage and administration:

  • For patients naïve to aripiprazole, establish tolerability with oral aripiprazole before initiating treatment with Abilify Asimtufii (aripiprazole).
  • Administered by intramuscular injection in the gluteal muscle by a health care professional. Don’t administer by any other route. 
  • Recommended dosage is 960 mg administered once every two months as a single injection. Dose can be reduced to 720 mg in patients with adverse reactions.
  • Missed doses: Dosage adjustment may be required.
  • Known CYP2D6 poor metabolizers: Recommended dosage is 720 mg administered once every two months as a single injection.

Dosage forms and strengths:

Extended-release injectable suspension: 960 mg/3.2 mL and 720 mg/2.4 mL single-dose pre-filled syringes

Abilify Asimtufii (aripiprazole) isn’t a benefit for URMBT.

J3490

J3590

Basic benefit and medical policy

Rezzayo (rezafungin)

Effective March 22, 2023, Rezzayo (rezafungin) is covered for the following FDA-approved indications:

Rezzayo (rezafungin) is an echinocandin antifungal indicated in patients 18 years of age or older who have limited or no alternative options for the treatment of candidemia and invasive candidiasis. Approval of this indication is based on limited clinical safety and efficacy data for Rezzayo (rezafungin).

Limitations of use:

Rezzayo (rezafungin) hasn’t been studied in patients with endocarditis, osteomyelitis and meningitis due to Candida.

Dosage and administration:

Administer the recommended dosage of Rezzayo (rezafungin) once weekly by intravenous infusion, with an initial 400 mg loading dose, followed by a 200 mg dose once weekly thereafter. The safety of Rezzayo (rezafungin) hasn’t been established beyond four weekly doses.

Dosage forms and strengths:

For injection: 200 mg as a solid (cake or powder) in a single-dose vial for reconstitution.

Rezzayo (rezafungin) isn’t a benefit for URMBT.

J3490

J3590

Basic benefit and medical policy

Roctavian (valoctocogene roxaparvovec-rvox)

Roctavian (valoctocogene roxaparvovec-rvox) is considered established, effective June 29, 2023.
Coverage of Roctavian (valoctocogene roxaparvovec-rvox) is provided when all the following are met:

  • FDA-approved age
  • Prescribed by or in consultation with a specialist who works in a hemophilia treatment center
  • Diagnosis of severe hemophilia A with factor VIII level < 1% IU/dL
  • Must not have detectable pre-existing immunity to the AAV5 capsid as measured by AAV5 transduction inhibition or AAV5 total antibodies
  • Must not have a history of factor VIII inhibitors and results for a modified Nijmegen-Bethesda assay of less than 0.6 Bethesda units (BU) on two consecutive occasions at least one week apart within the past 12 months must be submitted to the plan
  • Must have been treated with or exposed to factor VIII concentrates or cryoprecipitate for a minimum of 150 exposure days
  • Must be treatment experienced with Hemlibra for at least six months and experienced treatment failure, defined as any of the following:
    • Spontaneous soft tissue bleeding event
    • Micro-bleeding into a joint
    • Ongoing joint pain of a known target joint B

Quantity limitations, authorization period and renewal criteria:

  • Quantity limit: FDA-approved dosing
  • Authorization period: Three months with no renewal

This drug isn’t a benefit for URMBT.

J3490

J3590

Basic benefit and medical policy

Uzedy (risperidone)

Uzedy (risperidone) is considered established when criteria are met, effective April 28, 2023.

Uzedy (risperidone) is an atypical antipsychotic indicated for the treatment of schizophrenia in adults.

Dosage and administration:

  • Establish tolerability with oral risperidone before initiating Uzedy.
  • Administer Uzedy by subcutaneous injection in the abdomen or upper arm by a health care professional. Don’t administer by any other route.
  • Initiate Uzedy at the clinically appropriate dose using the following:
    • Prior oral risperidone therapy: 2 mg of oral risperidone per day
      Uzedy dosage once monthly: 50 mg
      Uzedy dosage once every two months: 150 m
    • Prior oral risperidone therapy: 3 mg of oral risperidone per day
      Uzedy dosage once monthly: 75 mg
      Uzedy dosage once every two months: 150 mg
    • Prior oral risperidone therapy: 4 mg of oral risperidone per day
      Uzedy dosage once monthly: 100 mg
      Uzedy dosage once every two months: 200 mg
    • Prior oral risperidone therapy: 5 mg of oral risperidone per day
      Uzedy dosage once monthly: 125 mg
      Uzedy dosage once every two months: 250 mg

J3490
J3590

Basic benefit and medical policy

Vyjuvek (beremagene geperpavec-svdt)

Vyjuvek (beremagene geperpavec-svdt) is considered established, effective May 19, 2023.

Coverage of Vyjuvek (beremagene geperpavec-svdt) is provided when all the following are met:

  • FDA-approved age
  • For the treatment of open wounds in patients with a diagnosis of dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa as confirmed by all the following:
    • Skin biopsy of an induced blister with immunofluorescence mapping or transmission electron microscopy
    • Genetic test results documenting mutations in the COL7A1 gene
  • Patient must not have current evidence or a history of squamous cell carcinoma in the area undergoing treatment.
  • Trial and failure, intolerance or a contraindication to the preferred products as specified in the Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan medical utilization management drug list B.

Quantity limitations, authorization period and renewal criteria:

  • Quantity limit: Align with FDA-recommended dosing.
  • Initial authorization period: Six months
  • Renewal criteria: Clinical documentation must be provided to confirm that current criteria are met and that the medication is providing clinical benefit.

This drug isn’t a benefit for URMBT.

J3490

J3590

Basic benefit and medical policy

Xacduro (sulbactam/durlobactam)

Xacduro (sulbactam/durlobactam) is considered established effective May 23, 2023. 

Xacduro is a co-packaged product containing sulbactam, a beta-lactam antibacterial and beta lactamase inhibitor, and durlobactam, a beta lactamase inhibitor, indicated in patients 18 years and older for the treatment of hospital-acquired bacterial pneumonia and ventilator-associated bacterial pneumonia, or HABP and VABP, caused by susceptible isolates of acinetobacter baumannii-calcoaceticus complex.
 
Limitations of use:

Xacduro isn’t indicated for the treatment of HABP and VABP caused by pathogens other than susceptible isolates of acinetobacter baumannii-calcoaceticus complex.

To reduce the development of drug-resistant bacteria and maintain the effectiveness of Xacduro and other antibacterial drugs, Xacduro should be used only to treat or prevent infections that are proven or strongly suspected to be caused by bacteria.

Dosage and administration:

  • Administer Xacduro (1 g of sulbactam, 1 g of durlobactam) every six hours by intravenous infusion over three hours in patients with creatinine clearance, or CLcr, of 45 to 129 mL/min.
  • Dosing regimen adjustments are recommended for CLcr less than 45 mL/min and CLcr greater than or equal to 130 mL/min. 
  • Administer all doses of Xacduro by IV infusion over three hours. 

Dosage forms and strengths:

Xacduro is a co-packaged kit containing the following two components as sterile powders for reconstitution:

  • One clear single-dose vial of sulbactam for injection 1 g, and
  • Two amber single-dose vials of durlobactam for injection 0.5 g.

This drug isn’t a benefit for URMBT.

J9173

Basic benefit and medical policy

Imfinzi (durvalumab)

The FDA has updated the payable indications for Imfinzi (durvalumab), effective Sept. 2, 2022. The payable indications include the following:

Imfinzi is a programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) blocking antibody indicated in combination with gemcitabine and cisplatin, as treatment of adult patients with locally advanced or metastatic biliary tract cancer, or BTC.

Dosage and administration:

Administer Imfinzi as an intravenous infusion over 60 minutes after dilution.

BTC:

  • Weight of 30 kg and more: Administer Imfinzi 1,500 mg every three weeks in combination with chemotherapy and then 1,500 mg every four weeks as a single agent.
  • Weight less than 30 kg: Administer Imfinzi 20 mg/kg every three weeks in combination with chemotherapy and then 20 mg/kg every four weeks as a single agent.

Q5111

Basic benefit and medical policy

Udenyca (pegfilgrastim-cbqv)

Udenyca (pegfilgrastim-cbqv) is covered for the following updated FDA-approved indication, effective Nov. 28, 2022:

  • Udenyca (pegfilgrastim-cbqv) is a leukocyte growth factor indicated to increase survival in patients acutely exposed to myelosuppressive doses of radiation (hematopoietic subsyndrome of acute radiation syndrome).

Limitations of use:
 
Udenyca (pegfilgrastim-cbqv) isn’t indicated for the mobilization of peripheral blood progenitor cells for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.
 
Dosage and administration:

Patients acutely exposed to myelosuppressive doses of radiation:

  • Two doses, 6 mg each, administered subcutaneously one week apart. Administer the first dose as soon as possible after suspected or confirmed exposure to myelosuppressive doses of radiation and a second dose one week after.
  • Use weight-based dosing for pediatric patients weighing less than 45 kg.

S9123, S9124

Basic benefit and medical policy

Private duty nursing

Private duty nursing may be considered established when specified criteria are met (refer to inclusionary and exclusionary guidelines).

Inclusionary and exclusionary criteria have been updated, effective June 1, 2023.

Inclusions:

All must be met:

  • The PDN services must be ordered by a physician, M.D. or D.O., who is involved in the ongoing care of the patient.
  • The patient must have a need for skilled nursing care. 
  • The patient’s condition must be complex or medically fragile.
  • The patient’s complex or fragile condition requires continuous assessment, observation and monitoring.
  • The patient must be medically stable at the time of discharge from the hospital such that PDN services can be provided safely.
  • At least two caregivers (family, friends, etc.) must be trained and competent to give care.
  • The patient needs skilled care that exceeds the scope of intermittent care.
  • The family or caregivers must provide at least eight hours of skilled care/day (a maximum of 16 hours per day of PDN care may be approved per day if medical necessity criteria are met).
  • Training and teaching activities by the private duty nurse to teach the patient, family or caregivers how to manage the treatment regimen is required and considered a skilled nursing service.
    • Training is no longer appropriate if, after a reasonable period of time, the patient, family or caregiver won’t or isn’t able to be trained.
    • If the caregiver/family member can’t or won’t accept responsibility for the care, private duty nursing will be considered not medically necessary as the home would be deemed an unsafe environment.
  • Criteria for specific conditions, if present, in addition to the medically complex and or fragile condition of the patient, one of the following must be present:
    • Tracheostomy tube suctioning is necessary for secretion control and required at least twice per eight-hour shift. (Tracheostomy tube changing is skilled; tracheostomy hygiene care isn’t.)
    • Management of tube drainage, complex wounds, cavities or irrigations require documentation of services on the record when they occur.
    • Complex medication administration (excluding PO medications that would ordinarily be taken by self-administration) of drugs with potential for serious side effects or drug interactions require documentation and appropriate monitoring. This includes intravenous administration of drugs or nutrition.
    • Tube feedings that require frequent changes in formulation or administration rate or have conditions that increase the aspiration risk requires documentation.

PDN for patients on ventilators

  • For patients who are on ventilators after discharge or suffer an acute event, up to 30 days of PDN services may be authorized.
  • Ventilator management: There must be documentation of the initial settings of mode of ventilation, tidal volume, respiratory rate and wave form modifications, if any, PEEP, and FIO2 at the beginning of each shift.
    • Oxygen saturation must be measured continuously for ventilator patients and any changes from baseline recorded thereafter.
    • Hourly observations of the patient’s clinical condition related to the ventilator management must be documented along with any changes in oxygen saturation.
  • The goal is to transition ventilator care to family or caregivers once the member is stable.    When family or caregivers can provide the patient’s routine ventilator care, including weaning (when appropriate), under the direction of their health care professional, the patient is deemed stable.

Ventilator care/management isn’t considered a skilled service requiring PDN nursing.

Exclusions:

Services of a private duty nurse are considered not covered in any of the following instances:

  • The PDN is acting as a nurse’s aide.
  • Custodial care (bathing, feeding, exercising, homemaking, giving oral medications or acting as a companion/sitter) doesn’t qualify for PDN.
  • The private duty nurse is a member of the patient’s household or if the cost of care is provided by one of the patient’s relatives (by blood, marriage or adoption).
  • The PDN is for maintenance care after the patient’s condition has stabilized (including routine ostomy care, tube feeding administration and tracheostomy or ventilator management). 
    • Medical and nursing documentation shows that the patient’s condition is stable/predictable or controlled, and a licensed nurse isn’t required to monitor the condition.
    • Care plan indicates a licensed nurse isn’t required to be in continuous attendance.
    • Care plan doesn’t require hands-on nursing interventions (Note: Observation in case an intervention is required isn’t considered skilled care.)
    • The caregiver or patient’s family has demonstrated the ability to carry out the plan of care.
  • If the patient’s anticipated need is indefinite, lifetime private duty nursing isn’t a benefit.
  • The care is for a person without an available caregiver in the home. 
  • It’s for respite care that includes (list isn’t all inclusive):
    • Care during a caregiver vacation
    • The convenience of the family or caregiver, so that the caregiver may attend work, school or care for other family members.
  • If the caregiver or family can’t or won’t accept responsibility for the care, private duty nursing will be considered not medically necessary as the home would be deemed an unsafe environment.
  • The PDN is provided outside the home (for example, school, nursing facility or assisted living facility).
  • It’s a duplication or overlap of services (for example, when a person is receiving hospice care services or for the same hours of a skilled nursing home care visit).
  • It’s for observational purposes only.
  • The skilled nursing is provided as part-time/intermittent and not continuous care.

Documentation requirements need all of the following:

  • Current plan of care signed by a physician (M.D. or D.O.) or signed by an advanced practitioner (NP, CNS or PA) in accordance with state law.
    • Plan of care must reflect the patient’s current clinical condition and be updated at least every three months.
    • Care plans greater than three months may indicate the patient is stable or that care is maintenance.
  • A comprehensive assessment of the patient’s health status, including documentation of the skilled need and medication administration record.
  • Discharge summary or recent progress note if patient is being discharged from an inpatient setting.
  • Consultation notes if the patient is receiving services from subspecialist.
  • Hourly documentation of the clinical information and services performed is required.

Additional documentation clarifying clinical status (such as well-child check or specialist visit notes) may be requested if clinical documentation provided doesn’t support the hours required.

None of the information included in this billing chart is intended to be legal advice and, as such, it remains the provider’s responsibility to ensure that all coding and documentation are done in accordance with all applicable state and federal laws and regulations.

No portion of this publication may be copied without the express written permission of Blue Cross Blue Shield of Michigan, except that BCBSM participating health care providers may make copies for their personal use. In no event may any portion of this publication be copied or reprinted and used for commercial purposes by any party other than BCBSM.

*CPT codes, descriptions and two-digit numeric modifiers only are copyright 2022 American Medical Association. All rights reserved.